Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A 2-year-old boy presents to the nurse practitioner with new onset seizures and a history of a port-wine stain at birth. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of Sturge-Weber syndrome (SWS)?
A. Sturge-Weber syndrome (SWS) is a rare disorder affecting the skin and nervous system
SWS is indeed a rare neurocutaneous disorder affecting the skin (port-wine stains) and central nervous system, making this a true clinical feature.
B. Symptoms of SWS may include seizures, muscle weakness, and developmental and intellectual disability
Neurologic manifestations, including seizures, hemiparesis, and intellectual disability, are characteristic features of SWS.
C. Treatment may include anti-seizure medications, medications and/or surgery for glaucoma, and low-dose aspirin to reduce the pressure in the eyes and brain
Management often involves anticonvulsants, glaucoma treatment, and sometimes low-dose aspirin to reduce vascular complications, confirming these are accurate features.
D. The prognosis for SWS is usually poor, with an average lifespan of 30 years
The prognosis of SWS varies widely; many patients live well into adulthood, making the statement of an average lifespan of 30 years inaccurate.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Mental Health Northern Kentucky University Proctored Exam 6. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: SWS is indeed a rare neurocutaneous disorder affecting the skin (port-wine stains) and central nervous system, making this a true clinical feature.
Choice B reason: Neurologic manifestations, including seizures, hemiparesis, and intellectual disability, are characteristic features of SWS.
Choice C reason: Management often involves anticonvulsants, glaucoma treatment, and sometimes low-dose aspirin to reduce vascular complications, confirming these are accurate features.
Choice D reason: The prognosis of SWS varies widely; many patients live well into adulthood, making the statement of an average lifespan of 30 years inaccurate.
Similar Questions
A 54-year-old Latino man receives a phone call that his mother has had a stroke and is in ICU at his local hospital. Soon after, he begins trembling, then shouting and screaming. The impression is that he is completely out of control. Which culture-bound syndrome should the PMHNP include in the differential diagnosis?
A. Khayal
Khayal is a South Asian culture-bound syndrome associated with anxiety and somatic complaints, not acute episodes of shouting and aggression.
B. Ataque de nervios
Ataque de nervios is a Latino culture-bound syndrome triggered by acute stress or trauma, characterized by shouting, trembling, and emotional outbursts, matching this patient’s presentation.
C. Amok
Amok is a Southeast Asian syndrome involving sudden aggressive outbursts, but it is culturally specific to Malaysia and the Philippines.
D. Dhat
Dhat is a South Asian culture-bound syndrome involving anxiety about semen loss, not acute aggressive episodes.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Khayal is a South Asian culture-bound syndrome associated with anxiety and somatic complaints, not acute episodes of shouting and aggression.
Choice B reason: Ataque de nervios is a Latino culture-bound syndrome triggered by acute stress or trauma, characterized by shouting, trembling, and emotional outbursts, matching this patient’s presentation.
Choice C reason: Amok is a Southeast Asian syndrome involving sudden aggressive outbursts, but it is culturally specific to Malaysia and the Philippines.
Choice D reason: Dhat is a South Asian culture-bound syndrome involving anxiety about semen loss, not acute aggressive episodes.
A 52-year-old woman is at her regular medication management appointment with her PMHNP. Her father was recently diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease, and she wants to know what herbal products she can use to prevent memory loss. She tells the PMHNP, "I have heard a lot about ginkgo biloba being good for the brain and memory. What's your opinion?"
A. "Nothing over the counter has ever been proven to work to prevent Alzheimer's disease."
While factually correct, this statement is dismissive and does not validate the patient’s autonomy or concerns.
B. "I understand your concern, and while there is no evidence that ginkgo biloba prevents Alzheimer's disease or dementia, it's certainly your choice to take this product."
This response is accurate and patient-centered, acknowledging the lack of proven benefit while respecting the patient’s choice to use ginkgo biloba.
C. "If it were me, I wouldn't waste my money."
This is a personal opinion rather than an evidence-based, professional response and may seem judgmental.
D. "Don't worry about it; there is a very small chance that you will develop dementia."
This statement minimizes the patient’s concern and may provide false reassurance.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: While factually correct, this statement is dismissive and does not validate the patient’s autonomy or concerns.
Choice B reason: This response is accurate and patient-centered, acknowledging the lack of proven benefit while respecting the patient’s choice to use ginkgo biloba.
Choice C reason: This is a personal opinion rather than an evidence-based, professional response and may seem judgmental.
Choice D reason: This statement minimizes the patient’s concern and may provide false reassurance.
A 28-year-old woman is referred to the PMHNP with symptoms of hypomania following the birth of her first child. Which of the following statements about postpartum hypomania is correct?
A. It is more common in multiparous women
Postpartum hypomania can occur in both primiparous and multiparous women; it is not limited to those with multiple births.
B. It occurs in less than 1% of postpartum women
Postpartum hypomania is relatively common, with higher rates reported than 1%, making this incorrect.
C. It is a risk factor for postpartum depression
Postpartum hypomania often precedes or predicts postpartum depression and is considered a risk factor for its development.
D. It tends to occur late in the postpartum period
It typically occurs early in the postpartum period, not late, often within the first few days after delivery.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Postpartum hypomania can occur in both primiparous and multiparous women; it is not limited to those with multiple births.
Choice B reason: Postpartum hypomania is relatively common, with higher rates reported than 1%, making this incorrect.
Choice C reason: Postpartum hypomania often precedes or predicts postpartum depression and is considered a risk factor for its development.
Choice D reason: It typically occurs early in the postpartum period, not late, often within the first few days after delivery.