Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A 30-year-old woman who has tried for a year to become pregnant presents to the nurse practitioner, who diagnoses cervical stenosis as the probable cause of her infertility. Which is the most appropriate treatment?
A. IUD insertion
IUD insertion is a contraceptive method and would not address cervical stenosis or aid fertility.
B. Cervical dilation
Cervical dilation is the standard treatment for cervical stenosis to mechanically open the cervical canal and restore patency for conception.
C. Colposcopy
Colposcopy is a diagnostic procedure for abnormal cervical findings, not a therapeutic intervention for stenosis.
D. LEEP procedure
LEEP (Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure) removes abnormal cervical tissue, not indicated for mechanical stenosis without dysplasia.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Mental Health Northern Kentucky University Proctored Exam 6. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: IUD insertion is a contraceptive method and would not address cervical stenosis or aid fertility.
Choice B reason: Cervical dilation is the standard treatment for cervical stenosis to mechanically open the cervical canal and restore patency for conception.
Choice C reason: Colposcopy is a diagnostic procedure for abnormal cervical findings, not a therapeutic intervention for stenosis.
Choice D reason: LEEP (Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure) removes abnormal cervical tissue, not indicated for mechanical stenosis without dysplasia.
Similar Questions
In addition to the physical exam and functional assessment, which of the following is used to assess response to treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?
A. White blood cell measurement
White blood cell counts may be affected by infection or medications but are not reliable markers for RA activity.
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate measurement
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is an inflammatory marker commonly used to monitor disease activity and response to treatment in rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Hemoglobin measurement
Hemoglobin levels may decrease due to chronic disease or medications but do not directly measure RA activity.
D. Measurement of absolute neutrophils
Absolute neutrophil counts are used to monitor for medication-induced cytopenias, not RA disease activity.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: White blood cell counts may be affected by infection or medications but are not reliable markers for RA activity.
Choice B reason: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is an inflammatory marker commonly used to monitor disease activity and response to treatment in rheumatoid arthritis.
Choice C reason: Hemoglobin levels may decrease due to chronic disease or medications but do not directly measure RA activity.
Choice D reason: Absolute neutrophil counts are used to monitor for medication-induced cytopenias, not RA disease activity.
A 26-year-old woman in her 37th week of pregnancy tested positive for Group B Strep. To prevent passing the infection to her newborn, how will she be treated?
A. Oral antibiotics
Oral antibiotics during pregnancy do not adequately prevent vertical transmission of GBS during labor.
B. Antibiotics prior to delivery
Antibiotics given prior to labor are not effective in preventing neonatal infection at delivery.
C. Birth canal wash with chlorhexidine
Chlorhexidine washes are not effective in preventing neonatal GBS infection.
D. IV antibiotic therapy during labor
IV antibiotics (usually penicillin or ampicillin) administered during labor are standard of care to prevent GBS transmission from mother to newborn.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Oral antibiotics during pregnancy do not adequately prevent vertical transmission of GBS during labor.
Choice B reason: Antibiotics given prior to labor are not effective in preventing neonatal infection at delivery.
Choice C reason: Chlorhexidine washes are not effective in preventing neonatal GBS infection.
Choice D reason: IV antibiotics (usually penicillin or ampicillin) administered during labor are standard of care to prevent GBS transmission from mother to newborn.
A 67-year-old man on a geriatric inpatient unit with no high school education scored 30 on the St. Louis University Mental Status Exam (SLUMS). What does this score indicate?
A. Mild dementia
Mild dementia corresponds to lower SLUMS scores; a score of 30 is higher than the cutoff for mild impairment.
B. Moderate dementia
Moderate dementia would present with a substantially lower SLUMS score.
C. Severe dementia
Severe dementia is associated with very low SLUMS scores well below 20.
D. Normal mental function
A SLUMS score of 30 indicates normal cognitive function, even considering lower education level.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Mild dementia corresponds to lower SLUMS scores; a score of 30 is higher than the cutoff for mild impairment.
Choice B reason: Moderate dementia would present with a substantially lower SLUMS score.
Choice C reason: Severe dementia is associated with very low SLUMS scores well below 20.
Choice D reason: A SLUMS score of 30 indicates normal cognitive function, even considering lower education level.