Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A 41-year-old man presents to the PMHNP with new-onset depression and motor abnormalities. These symptoms are indicative of which disorder?
A. Neurosyphilis
Neurosyphilis can cause neuropsychiatric symptoms but typically presents with a broader spectrum including sensory deficits and gait disturbances.
B. Kuru
Kuru is a prion disease historically seen in Papua New Guinea with tremors and ataxia, not a common diagnosis elsewhere.
C. Huntington’s disease
Huntington’s disease presents with movement disorders (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric symptoms such as depression, often in midlife.
D. Neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection
HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder may cause cognitive deficits but motor abnormalities are less specific and occur later in disease progression.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Mental Health Northern Kentucky University Proctored Exam 6. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Neurosyphilis can cause neuropsychiatric symptoms but typically presents with a broader spectrum including sensory deficits and gait disturbances.
Choice B reason: Kuru is a prion disease historically seen in Papua New Guinea with tremors and ataxia, not a common diagnosis elsewhere.
Choice C reason: Huntington’s disease presents with movement disorders (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric symptoms such as depression, often in midlife.
Choice D reason: HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder may cause cognitive deficits but motor abnormalities are less specific and occur later in disease progression.
Similar Questions
The factors that raise the risk for heart disease, diabetes, and stroke are collectively known as:
A. The triglyceride triad
The triglyceride triad refers to elevated triglycerides, small dense LDL, and low HDL, which is part of metabolic syndrome but not the overall term.
B. Metabolic syndrome
Metabolic syndrome is the correct term encompassing obesity, insulin resistance, dyslipidemia, and hypertension, which collectively increase the risk of cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and stroke.
C. Cardiovascular cluster
Cardiovascular cluster is not a standardized medical term.
D. Endocrine failure
Endocrine failure refers to organ-specific hormonal insufficiency and is unrelated to metabolic syndrome.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: The triglyceride triad refers to elevated triglycerides, small dense LDL, and low HDL, which is part of metabolic syndrome but not the overall term.
Choice B reason: Metabolic syndrome is the correct term encompassing obesity, insulin resistance, dyslipidemia, and hypertension, which collectively increase the risk of cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and stroke.
Choice C reason: Cardiovascular cluster is not a standardized medical term.
Choice D reason: Endocrine failure refers to organ-specific hormonal insufficiency and is unrelated to metabolic syndrome.
A 26-year-old woman in her 37th week of pregnancy tested positive for Group B Strep (GBS). To prevent passing the infection to her newborn, which antibiotic class is appropriate?
A. Beta-lactams
Beta-lactams, such as penicillin or ampicillin, are the first-line therapy for intrapartum prophylaxis against GBS, effectively preventing neonatal infection.
B. Aminoglycosides
Aminoglycosides are not first-line for GBS prophylaxis and are typically reserved for gram-negative infections.
C. Sulfonamides
Sulfonamides are contraindicated in late pregnancy due to risk of neonatal kernicterus and are not effective for GBS prophylaxis.
D. Fluoroquinolones
Fluoroquinolones are not recommended during pregnancy and are not used for GBS prevention.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Beta-lactams, such as penicillin or ampicillin, are the first-line therapy for intrapartum prophylaxis against GBS, effectively preventing neonatal infection.
Choice B reason: Aminoglycosides are not first-line for GBS prophylaxis and are typically reserved for gram-negative infections.
Choice C reason: Sulfonamides are contraindicated in late pregnancy due to risk of neonatal kernicterus and are not effective for GBS prophylaxis.
Choice D reason: Fluoroquinolones are not recommended during pregnancy and are not used for GBS prevention.
Which of the following represents one of the key changes from the DSM-4 to the DSM-5?
A. DSM-4 considered homosexuality a psychiatric illness
This choice is incorrect because DSM-4 had already removed homosexuality as a psychiatric disorder in 1973, long before DSM-4 or DSM-5. Therefore, this does not represent a change between DSM-4 and DSM-5.
B. DSM-5 no longer considers psychosocial and environmental issues when assessing a patient
This choice is incorrect because DSM-5 actually emphasizes consideration of psychosocial and contextual factors in diagnosis, rather than eliminating them. The assessment still incorporates these factors in clinical formulation.
C. DSM-5 uses two axes instead of five
This choice is incorrect because DSM-5 eliminated the multiaxial system, which had five axes in DSM-4, and did not replace it with a two-axis system. The DSM-5 uses a single-axis approach with dimensional assessments.
D. DSM-4 used a multiaxial approach to psychiatric assessment
This choice is correct because DSM-5 removed the multiaxial assessment system that was used in DSM-4, which included five separate axes for diagnosis. This is one of the primary structural changes between the two editions.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: This choice is incorrect because DSM-4 had already removed homosexuality as a psychiatric disorder in 1973, long before DSM-4 or DSM-5. Therefore, this does not represent a change between DSM-4 and DSM-5.
Choice B reason: This choice is incorrect because DSM-5 actually emphasizes consideration of psychosocial and contextual factors in diagnosis, rather than eliminating them. The assessment still incorporates these factors in clinical formulation.
Choice C reason: This choice is incorrect because DSM-5 eliminated the multiaxial system, which had five axes in DSM-4, and did not replace it with a two-axis system. The DSM-5 uses a single-axis approach with dimensional assessments.
Choice D reason: This choice is correct because DSM-5 removed the multiaxial assessment system that was used in DSM-4, which included five separate axes for diagnosis. This is one of the primary structural changes between the two editions.