Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A client who delivered vaginally 2 days ago states that she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control. What information should the nurse share with her?
A. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.
Incorrect- This is true; the diaphragm should be inserted before sexual activity. However, the main concern in this scenario is the need for refitting after childbirth.
B. The most effective form of contraception is a diaphragm.
Incorrect- This statement is not accurate. While the diaphragm is a form of contraception, it is not considered one of the most effective methods. Long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) like intrauterine devices (IUDs) and hormonal implants are among the most effective methods.
C. Vaseline lubricant can be used when inserting the diaphragm.
Incorrect- Vaseline lubricant can be used when inserting the diaphragm: Vaseline and other oil-based lubricants can weaken the latex or cause damage to the diaphragm. Water-based lubricants are recommended for use with diaphragms.
D. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
Correct- The diaphragm is a barrier contraceptive device that is inserted into the vagina before sexual intercourse to prevent pregnancy. However, its effectiveness can be compromised by changes in the anatomy of the vaginal canal, cervix, and pelvic structures, such as those that occur after childbirth. After vaginal childbirth, the pelvic structures may undergo changes, including stretching and possible loss of tone. These changes can affect the fit and position of the diaphragm, leading to decreased contraceptive efficacy. Therefore, it's important for women who have given birth to have their diaphragm refitted by a healthcare provider before resuming its use.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
A) Incorrect- This is true; the diaphragm should be inserted before sexual activity. However, the main concern in this scenario is the need for refitting after childbirth.
B) Incorrect- This statement is not accurate. While the diaphragm is a form of contraception, it is not considered one of the most effective methods. Long-acting reversible contraceptives
(LARCs) like intrauterine devices (IUDs) and hormonal implants are among the most effective methods.
C) Incorrect- Vaseline lubricant can be used when inserting the diaphragm: Vaseline and other oil-based lubricants can weaken the latex or cause damage to the diaphragm. Water-based lubricants are recommended for use with diaphragms.
D) Correct- The diaphragm is a barrier contraceptive device that is inserted into the vagina before sexual intercourse to prevent pregnancy. However, its effectiveness can be compromised by changes in the anatomy of the vaginal canal, cervix, and pelvic structures, such as those that occur after childbirth. After vaginal childbirth, the pelvic structures may undergo changes, including stretching and possible loss of tone. These changes can affect the fit and position of the diaphragm, leading to decreased contraceptive efficacy. Therefore, it's important for women who have given birth to have their diaphragm refitted by a healthcare provider before resuming its use.
Similar Questions
The nurse is caring for a client with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease who is experiencing episodes of confusion. Which finding alerts the nurse that the client may be experiencing a complication?
A. Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg.
Incorrect- A blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within a generally acceptable range for a person with diabetes and coronary artery disease. It may not directly indicate a complication related to the episodes of confusion. While blood pressure management is important for clients with diabetes and coronary artery disease, this particular blood pressure reading is not necessarily a significant finding in relation to the client's confusion.
B. Cervical spine stiffness.
Correct- Cervical spine stiffness or neck stiffness is a potential neurological symptom that can indicate a serious complication in a client with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease. The stiffness of the neck may be a sign of meningeal irritation, which can result from various conditions including infections such as meningitis. The client's medical history includes both type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease, which are risk factors for cardiovascular events, including cerebrovascular accidents (strokes). Confusion can be a symptom of a stroke, and neck stiffness can be indicative of meningeal irritation secondary to a stroke or another neurological condition.
C. Dark yellow urine.
Incorrect- Dark yellow urine can be a sign of dehydration, which can be a concern for someone with diabetes. However, it is not directly related to episodes of confusion. Dehydration can cause various symptoms, but confusion is not typically associated with mild dehydration.
D. Excessive perspiration.
Incorrect- Excessive perspiration (diaphoresis) can occur for various reasons, including increased sympathetic nervous system activity, fever, anxiety, and physical activity. While it can be a symptom of certain complications, such as hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or heart attack, it alone may not directly relate to the episodes of confusion in this client.
Full Explanation
A) Incorrect- A blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within a generally acceptable range for a person with diabetes and coronary artery disease. It may not directly indicate a complication related to the episodes of confusion. While blood pressure management is important for clients with diabetes and coronary artery disease, this particular blood pressure reading is not necessarily a significant finding in relation to the client's confusion.
B) Correct- Cervical spine stiffness or neck stiffness is a potential neurological symptom that can indicate a serious complication in a client with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease. The stiffness of the neck may be a sign of meningeal irritation, which can result from various conditions including infections such as meningitis. The client's medical history includes both type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease, which are risk factors for cardiovascular events, including cerebrovascular accidents (strokes). Confusion can be a symptom of a stroke, and neck stiffness can be indicative of meningeal irritation secondary to a stroke or another neurological condition.
C) Incorrect- Dark yellow urine can be a sign of dehydration, which can be a concern for someone with diabetes. However, it is not directly related to episodes of confusion. Dehydration can cause various symptoms, but confusion is not typically associated with mild dehydration.
D) Incorrect- Excessive perspiration (diaphoresis) can occur for various reasons, including increased sympathetic nervous system activity, fever, anxiety, and physical activity. While it can be a symptom of certain complications, such as hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or heart attack, it alone may not directly relate to the episodes of confusion in this client.
A client diagnosed with calcium kidney stones has a history of gout. A new prescription for aluminum hydroxide is scheduled to begin at 0730. Which client medication should the nurse bring to the healthcare provider's attention?
A. Furosemide.
Incorrect- Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions such as edema and hypertension. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
B. Aspirin, low dose.
Incorrect- Low-dose aspirin is often used for its antiplatelet effects to prevent cardiovascular events. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
C. Allopurinol.
Correct- Allopurinol is a medication used to treat gout by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. However, allopurinol can also increase the risk of forming calcium oxalate kidney stones, which is the type of kidney stone mentioned in the client's history. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone, and they are composed primarily of calcium and oxalate. In this case, the client has a history of gout and is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should bring the client's prescription for allopurinol to the healthcare provider's attention because it has the potential to contribute to the formation of kidney stones, which could exacerbate the client's existing condition.
D. Enalapril.
Incorrect- Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
Full Explanation
A) Incorrect- Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions such as edema and hypertension. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
B) Incorrect- Low-dose aspirin is often used for its antiplatelet effects to prevent cardiovascular events. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
C) Correct- Allopurinol is a medication used to treat gout by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. However, allopurinol can also increase the risk of forming calcium oxalate kidney stones, which is the type of kidney stone mentioned in the client's history. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone, and they are composed primarily of calcium and oxalate. In this case, the client has a history of gout and is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should bring the client's prescription for allopurinol to the healthcare provider's attention because
it has the potential to contribute to the formation of kidney stones, which could exacerbate the client's existing condition.
D) Incorrect- Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure. It does not directly relate to the client's history of gout or the risk of calcium kidney stones.
Six weeks after the birth of a child with Trisomy 21, the parents return to the prenatal clinic for a follow-up visit. They have spoken with a genetic counselor, but are still unsure about the risk of having another child with Trisomy 21. The couple brings literature from the counselor with them, and asks the nurse to explain it. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Review the literature and answer any questions the nurse is able to answer.
Correct- As a nurse, it's important to provide accurate and helpful information to patients and families. In this situation, the parents have brought literature from a genetic counselor and are seeking clarification. The nurse should review the literature to the best of their ability and answer any questions they can. This approach demonstrates support, a willingness to help, and a commitment to providing accurate information.
B. Determine their reasoning for seeking genetic counseling at this time.
Incorrect- While understanding the parents' reasons for seeking genetic counseling is important, it shouldn't be the first response when they have already brought literature and are seeking clarification. Addressing their questions and concerns is the immediate priority.
C. Tell the couple that it is best to call the counselor with their questions.
Incorrect- While it's true that the couple could contact the genetic counselor for further information, as a healthcare professional, the nurse should still offer assistance by reviewing the literature and answering questions to the best of their ability.
D. Recommend a community support group for parents of children with Trisomy 21.
Incorrect- While support groups can be beneficial for parents of children with Trisomy 21, the immediate concern is addressing the parents' questions about the literature they've brought. Providing accurate information should be the primary focus at this time.
Full Explanation
A) Correct- As a nurse, it's important to provide accurate and helpful information to patients and families. In this situation, the parents have brought literature from a genetic counselor and are seeking clarification. The nurse should review the literature to the best of their ability and answer any questions they can. This approach demonstrates support, a willingness to help, and a commitment to providing accurate information.
B) Incorrect- While understanding the parents' reasons for seeking genetic counseling is important, it shouldn't be the first response when they have already brought literature and are seeking clarification. Addressing their questions and concerns is the immediate priority.
C) Incorrect- While it's true that the couple could contact the genetic counselor for further information, as a healthcare professional, the nurse should still offer assistance by reviewing the literature and answering questions to the best of their ability.
D) Incorrect- While support groups can be beneficial for parents of children with Trisomy 21, the immediate concern is addressing the parents' questions about the literature they've brought. Providing accurate information should be the primary focus at this time.