Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A female patient with a suspected urinary tract infection is to provide a clean-catch midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing. What should the nurse do to obtain the specimen?
A. Tell the patient to clean the urethral area, void a small amount into the toilet, then void directly into a sterile container.
This method is the standard procedure for obtaining a clean-catch midstream urine specimen. The initial voiding washes away organisms near the meatus, and the midstream urine is less likely to be contaminated by bacteria from the skin or urethral area, providing a sample that more accurately represents the bacteria in the bladder.
B. Have the patient empty the bladder completely; then obtain the next urine specimen that the patient is able to void.
Having the patient empty the bladder completely and then obtaining the next specimen does not ensure a clean-catch sample. This method could lead to contamination of the specimen with bacteria from the skin or urethral area.
C. Clean the area around the patient's meatus with a povidone-iodine (Betadine) swab and then have the patient void into a sterile specimen cup.
Cleaning the area with povidone-iodine is not recommended for routine urine culture as it may kill some of the bacteria, leading to a false-negative result. The standard practice is to clean the area with mild soap and water.
D. Insert a short sterile "mini" catheter attached to a collecting container into the urethra and bladder to obtain the specimen.
Inserting a catheter is an invasive procedure and is not the first choice for obtaining a urine specimen. It is used when a patient is unable to provide a clean-catch specimen or if there are specific medical indications.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Ati Med Surg Proctored Exam Midterm Rn 36 1125. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale
This method is the standard procedure for obtaining a clean-catch midstream urine specimen. The initial voiding washes away organisms near the meatus, and the midstream urine is less likely to be contaminated by bacteria from the skin or urethral area, providing a sample that more accurately represents the bacteria in the bladder.
Choice B rationale
Having the patient empty the bladder completely and then obtaining the next specimen does not ensure a clean-catch sample. This method could lead to contamination of the specimen with bacteria from the skin or urethral area.
Choice C rationale
Cleaning the area with povidone-iodine is not recommended for routine urine culture as it may kill some of the bacteria, leading to a false-negative result. The standard practice is to clean the area with mild soap and water.
Choice D rationale
Inserting a catheter is an invasive procedure and is not the first choice for obtaining a urine specimen. It is used when a patient is unable to provide a clean-catch specimen or if there are specific medical indications.
Similar Questions
A patient is admitted with esophageal varices and portal hypertension. Which underlying cause of these conditions would the nurse suspect?
A. Liver cirrhosis
Liver cirrhosis is the most common cause of esophageal varices and portal hypertension. Cirrhosis leads to scarring of the liver, which impedes blood flow through the portal vein, causing increased pressure (portal hypertension) and the development of collateral blood vessels (varices) as the body attempts to bypass the blockage.
B. Throat lacerations
Throat lacerations are not related to the development of esophageal varices or portal hypertension. They are typically acute injuries and do not cause the chronic changes seen in the vasculature associated with these conditions.
C. Kyphosis
Kyphosis, a curvature of the spine, does not cause esophageal varices or portal hypertension. It is a structural skeletal condition and does not affect the vasculature of the esophagus or the portal venous system.
D. Squamous cell cancer
While squamous cell cancer can occur in the esophagus, it is not a typical cause of portal hypertension or esophageal varices. These varices are usually a result of increased pressure in the portal vein, not directly from a malignancy.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale
Liver cirrhosis is the most common cause of esophageal varices and portal hypertension. Cirrhosis leads to scarring of the liver, which impedes blood flow through the portal vein, causing increased pressure (portal hypertension) and the development of collateral blood vessels (varices) as the body attempts to bypass the blockage.
Choice B rationale
Throat lacerations are not related to the development of esophageal varices or portal hypertension. They are typically acute injuries and do not cause the chronic changes seen in the vasculature associated with these conditions.
Choice C rationale
Kyphosis, a curvature of the spine, does not cause esophageal varices or portal hypertension. It is a structural skeletal condition and does not affect the vasculature of the esophagus or the portal venous system.
Choice D rationale
While squamous cell cancer can occur in the esophagus, it is not a typical cause of portal hypertension or esophageal varices. These varices are usually a result of increased pressure in the portal vein, not directly from a malignancy.
A patient who has is hospitalized with hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the acute glomerulonephritis prescribed calcium gluconate IV?
A. Calcium level
Monitoring calcium levels is important after administering calcium gluconate IV, but it is not the primary indicator of the medication's effectiveness in treating hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate is used in hyperkalemia to stabilize the heart muscle, not to correct calcium levels.
B. Neurologic status
Neurologic status may be affected by hyperkalemia, but changes in neurologic status are not the most direct measure of calcium gluconate's effectiveness. The medication's primary role is to address cardiac risks associated with high potassium levels.
C. Cardiac rhythm
Cardiac rhythm is the most critical aspect to monitor after administering calcium gluconate for hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, and calcium gluconate works by stabilizing the cardiac membrane, thus the effectiveness of the treatment is directly reflected in the stabilization of the cardiac rhythm.
D. Urine volume
While urine volume can indicate kidney function and might indirectly reflect changes in potassium levels, it is not the direct measure of calcium gluconate's effectiveness in the emergency treatment of hyperkalemia.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale
Monitoring calcium levels is important after administering calcium gluconate IV, but it is not the primary indicator of the medication's effectiveness in treating hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate is used in hyperkalemia to stabilize the heart muscle, not to correct calcium levels.
Choice B rationale
Neurologic status may be affected by hyperkalemia, but changes in neurologic status are not the most direct measure of calcium gluconate's effectiveness. The medication's primary role is to address cardiac risks associated with high potassium levels.
Choice C rationale
Cardiac rhythm is the most critical aspect to monitor after administering calcium gluconate for hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, and calcium gluconate works by stabilizing the cardiac membrane, thus the effectiveness of the treatment is directly reflected in the stabilization of the cardiac rhythm.
Choice D rationale
While urine volume can indicate kidney function and might indirectly reflect changes in potassium levels, it is not the direct measure of calcium gluconate's effectiveness in the emergency treatment of hyperkalemia.
Which finding for a patient with pancreatitis is termed Grey Turner's sign?
A. Jaundice of the sclera
Jaundice of the sclera is indicative of hyperbilirubinemia, which can occur in various liver diseases but is not specifically associated with Grey Turner's sign or pancreatitis.
B. Bluish discoloration of the periumbilical area
Bluish discoloration of the periumbilical area, known as Cullen's sign, is another indicator of severe pancreatitis but is distinct from Grey Turner's sign, which specifically refers to the flank area.
C. Left abdominal pain that occurs with movement
Left abdominal pain that occurs with movement may be a symptom experienced by patients with pancreatitis, but it is not referred to as Grey Turner's sign, which is a physical finding rather than a symptom.
D. Bluish discoloration of the flank area
Grey Turner's sign is characterized by bluish discoloration of the flank area. It is a sign of retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which can occur in severe cases of pancreatitis due to the spread of pancreatic enzymes to surrounding tissues, leading to localized bleeding.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale
Jaundice of the sclera is indicative of hyperbilirubinemia, which can occur in various liver diseases but is not specifically associated with Grey Turner's sign or pancreatitis.
Choice B rationale
Bluish discoloration of the periumbilical area, known as Cullen's sign, is another indicator of severe pancreatitis but is distinct from Grey Turner's sign, which specifically refers to the flank area.
Choice C rationale
Left abdominal pain that occurs with movement may be a symptom experienced by patients with pancreatitis, but it is not referred to as Grey Turner's sign, which is a physical finding rather than a symptom.
Choice D rationale
Grey Turner's sign is characterized by bluish discoloration of the flank area. It is a sign of retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which can occur in severe cases of pancreatitis due to the spread of pancreatic enzymes to surrounding tissues, leading to localized bleeding.