Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who has a basilar skull fracture and serosanguineous nasal discharge following a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as reliable for determining that the discharge is cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Papilledema.
Papilledema refers to swelling of the optic disc in the eye, which can occur due to increased intracranial pressure. While it may be present in cases of basilar skull fracture, it is not a reliable finding for determining the discharge of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
B. Halo sign.
The halo sign is a reliable finding for determining that the nasal discharge is cerebrospinal fluid. The halo sign is characterized by a ring of blood surrounded by a clear or yellowish fluid (CSF) on a dressing or tissue. This occurs because blood from the fracture mixes with the clear CSF, creating a distinct appearance.
C. Racoon's eyes.
Racoon's eyes, also known as periorbital ecchymosis, is a term used to describe bruising around the eyes. While it can be seen in basilar skull fractures, it is not specific to cerebrospinal fluid leakage and, therefore, not reliable for identifying the nasal discharge as CSF.
D. Elevated WBCs.
Elevated white blood cells (WBCs) in the nasal discharge can indicate infection, inflammation, or an immune response. However, it does not provide direct evidence that the discharge is cerebrospinal fluid, so this is not a reliable finding for determining the nature of the nasal discharge in this context.
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Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Papilledema refers to swelling of the optic disc in the eye, which can occur due to increased intracranial pressure. While it may be present in cases of basilar skull fracture, it is not a reliable finding for determining the discharge of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Choice B rationale:
The halo sign is a reliable finding for determining that the nasal discharge is cerebrospinal fluid. The halo sign is characterized by a ring of blood surrounded by a clear or yellowish fluid (CSF) on a dressing or tissue. This occurs because blood from the fracture mixes with the clear CSF, creating a distinct appearance.
Choice C rationale:
Racoon's eyes, also known as periorbital ecchymosis, is a term used to describe bruising around the eyes. While it can be seen in basilar skull fractures, it is not specific to cerebrospinal fluid leakage and, therefore, not reliable for identifying the nasal discharge as CSF.
Choice D rationale:
Elevated white blood cells (WBCs) in the nasal discharge can indicate infection, inflammation, or an immune response. However, it does not provide direct evidence that the discharge is cerebrospinal fluid, so this is not a reliable finding for determining the nature of the nasal discharge in this context.
Similar Questions
A nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?
A. Have the client point their chin upward to swallow.
Having the client point their chin upward to swallow is not a recommended action to reduce the risk of aspiration. In fact, this action can increase the risk of choking and aspiration, as it may cause food or liquids to enter the airway.
B. Offer the client saltine crackers between meals.
Offering the client saltine crackers between meals is not a suitable action for reducing the risk of aspiration. Saltine crackers are dry and can be challenging to swallow for someone with dysphagia, potentially increasing the risk of aspiration.
C. Thicken liquids before serving.
Thicken liquids before serving is the correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with dysphagia. Thickened liquids are easier to swallow and less likely to enter the airway, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia.
D. Place food on the affected side of the mouth.
Placing food on the affected side of the mouth does not address the risk of aspiration directly. Dysphagia may affect both sides of the mouth, and placing food on one side does not ensure safe swallowing and reduces the effectiveness of addressing the problem.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Having the client point their chin upward to swallow is not a recommended action to reduce the risk of aspiration. In fact, this action can increase the risk of choking and aspiration, as it may cause food or liquids to enter the airway.
Choice B rationale:
Offering the client saltine crackers between meals is not a suitable action for reducing the risk of aspiration. Saltine crackers are dry and can be challenging to swallow for someone with dysphagia, potentially increasing the risk of aspiration.
Choice C rationale:
Thicken liquids before serving is the correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with dysphagia. Thickened liquids are easier to swallow and less likely to enter the airway, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia.
Choice D rationale:
Placing food on the affected side of the mouth does not address the risk of aspiration directly. Dysphagia may affect both sides of the mouth, and placing food on one side does not ensure safe swallowing and reduces the effectiveness of addressing the problem.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute kidney failure after a surgical procedure. Telemetry monitoring shows a widened QRS, frequent premature ventricular contractions, and a heart rate of 55/min. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse identify?
A. Hyperkalemia.
The combination of widened QRS, frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs), and bradycardia (heart rate of 55/min) on telemetry monitoring suggests hyperkalemia. Elevated potassium levels in the blood can cause delayed repolarization of cardiac cells, leading to widened QRS complexes and PVCs. Bradycardia is another common manifestation of hyperkalemia.
B. Hypocalcemia.
Hypocalcemia, characterized by low calcium levels in the blood, can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, but it typically presents with a prolonged QT interval rather than widened QRS complexes and PVCs.
C. Hyperglycemia.
Hyperglycemia, which is high blood glucose levels, does not directly affect the electrocardiogram (ECG) parameters like QRS width or heart rate. It may have systemic effects, but it is not responsible for the ECG changes described in the scenario.
D. Hypophosphatemia.
Hypophosphatemia, or low levels of phosphate in the blood, can cause muscle weakness and may have systemic effects, but it is not associated with the specific ECG changes seen in hyperkalemia, such as widened QRS complexes and PVCs.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The combination of widened QRS, frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs), and bradycardia (heart rate of 55/min) on telemetry monitoring suggests hyperkalemia. Elevated potassium levels in the blood can cause delayed repolarization of cardiac cells, leading to widened QRS complexes and PVCs. Bradycardia is another common manifestation of hyperkalemia.
Choice B rationale:
Hypocalcemia, characterized by low calcium levels in the blood, can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, but it typically presents with a prolonged QT interval rather than widened QRS complexes and PVCs.
Choice C rationale:
Hyperglycemia, which is high blood glucose levels, does not directly affect the electrocardiogram (ECG) parameters like QRS width or heart rate. It may have systemic effects, but it is not responsible for the ECG changes described in the scenario.
Choice D rationale:
Hypophosphatemia, or low levels of phosphate in the blood, can cause muscle weakness and may have systemic effects, but it is not associated with the specific ECG changes seen in hyperkalemia, such as widened QRS complexes and PVCs.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for lovastatin. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse instruct the client to complete before starting the medication?
A. Potassium level.
(Potassium level) Lovastatin is a medication used to treat high cholesterol levels. While potassium levels are important to monitor for certain conditions, they are not directly related to the initiation of lovastatin therapy. Therefore, this is not the correct choice for diagnostic testing before starting the medication.
B. Hemoglobin level.
(Hemoglobin level) Hemoglobin levels are important to assess for anemia or other blood disorders. However, they are not specifically required before starting lovastatin therapy. Therefore, this is not the correct choice for diagnostic testing before starting the medication.
C. Kidney function tests.
(Kidney function tests) While kidney function tests are essential for many medications to ensure proper excretion and avoid toxicity, they are not directly related to the initiation of lovastatin therapy. Therefore, this is not the correct choice for diagnostic testing before starting the medication.
D. Liver function tests.
(Liver function tests) Liver function tests are crucial before starting lovastatin therapy. Lovastatin is metabolized in the liver, and it can potentially cause liver damage or abnormalities in liver enzymes. Monitoring liver function helps detect any pre-existing liver conditions and ensures the safe use of the medication. Therefore, this is the correct choice for diagnostic testing before starting the medication.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
(Potassium level) Lovastatin is a medication used to treat high cholesterol levels. While potassium levels are important to monitor for certain conditions, they are not directly related to the initiation of lovastatin therapy. Therefore, this is not the correct choice for diagnostic testing before starting the medication.
Choice B rationale:
(Hemoglobin level) Hemoglobin levels are important to assess for anemia or other blood disorders. However, they are not specifically required before starting lovastatin therapy. Therefore, this is not the correct choice for diagnostic testing before starting the medication.
Choice C rationale:
(Kidney function tests) While kidney function tests are essential for many medications to ensure proper excretion and avoid toxicity, they are not directly related to the initiation of lovastatin therapy. Therefore, this is not the correct choice for diagnostic testing before starting the medication.
Choice D rationale:
(Liver function tests) Liver function tests are crucial before starting lovastatin therapy. Lovastatin is metabolized in the liver, and it can potentially cause liver damage or abnormalities in liver enzymes. Monitoring liver function helps detect any pre-existing liver conditions and ensures the safe use of the medication. Therefore, this is the correct choice for diagnostic testing before starting the medication.