Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A nurse is administering furosemide IV bolus to a client who has fluid volume excess.
The nurse should recognize which of the following findings as an indication that the medication has been effective?
A. Weight loss.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is used to treat fluid volume excess by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys. Weight loss is an indication that the medication has been effective in reducing the excess fluid in the body.
B. Decreased inflammation.
because decreased inflammation is not a direct effect of furosemide. Inflammation is a response to tissue injury or infection, and furosemide does not have any anti-inflammatory properties.
C. Increased blood pressure.
because increased blood pressure is not an indication of furosemide effectiveness. Furosemide lowers blood pressure by reducing the preload and afterload on the heart. Increased blood pressure may indicate that the dose of furosemide is insufficient or that there are other factors contributing to hypertension.
D. Decreased pain.
wrong because decreased pain is not an expected outcome of furosemide therapy. Furosemide does not have any analgesic effects, and pain may be caused by various conditions that are not related to fluid volume excess. Normal ranges for weight, blood pressure and pain vary depending on the individual patient’s baseline and goals.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Proctored Exam A. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
The correct answer is A.
Weight loss.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is used to treat fluid volume excess by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys. Weight loss is an indication that the medication has been effective in reducing the excess fluid in the body.
Choice B is wrong because decreased inflammation is not a direct effect of furosemide.
Inflammation is a response to tissue injury or infection, and furosemide does not have any anti-inflammatory properties.
Choice C is wrong because increased blood pressure is not an indication of furosemide effectiveness.
Furosemide lowers blood pressure by reducing the preload and afterload on the heart.
Increased blood pressure may indicate that the dose of furosemide is insufficient or that there are other factors contributing to hypertension.
Choice D is wrong because decreased pain is not an expected outcome of furosemide therapy.
Furosemide does not have any analgesic effects, and pain may be caused by various conditions that are not related to fluid volume excess.
Normal ranges for weight, blood pressure and pain vary depending on the individual patient’s baseline and goals.
However, some general guidelines are:
- Weight: A weight loss of 0.5 to 1 kg per day is considered safe and effective for patients with fluid volume excess.
- Blood pressure: The target blood pressure for most patients with heart failure is less than 130/80 mmHg.
- Pain: The pain level should be assessed using a valid and reliable scale, such as the numeric rating scale or the visual analogue scale, and treated according to the patient’s preference and tolerance.
Similar Questions
A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter.
The nurse notes that sediment is present in the urine.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to obtain a sterile urine specimen?
A. Unclamp the collection port below the bag.
because unclamping the collection port below the bag would allow urine to flow out of the bag, which is not sterile and may contain bacteria or sediment
B. Obtain the specimen from the retention port.
This is because the retention port is a sterile site that can be accessed by a syringe to aspirate urine without contaminating the specimen or the closed drainage system. The retention port should be cleaned with an alcohol swab before inserting the syringe. The specimen should be transferred to a sterile container and labeled appropriately.
C. Disconnect the catheter from the collection tubing.
wrong because disconnecting the catheter from the collection tubing would break the closed drainage system and increase the risk of infection
D. Use the balloon port to obtain the sterile specimen.
is wrong because using the balloon port to obtain the sterile specimen would deflate the balloon that holds the catheter in place and cause trauma to the bladder wall.
Full Explanation
Obtain the specimen from the retention port. This is because the retention port is a sterile site that can be accessed by a syringe to aspirate urine without contaminating the specimen or the closed drainage system. The retention port should be cleaned with an alcohol swab before inserting the syringe. The specimen should be transferred to a sterile container and labeled appropriately.
Choice A is wrong because unclamping the collection port below the bag would allow urine to flow out of the bag, which is not sterile and may contain bacteria or sediment. Choice C is wrong because disconnecting the catheter from the collection tubing would break the closed drainage system and increase the risk of infection. Choice D is wrong because using the balloon port to obtain the sterile specimen would deflate the balloon that holds the catheter in place and cause trauma to the bladder wall.
Normal ranges for urine characteristics vary depending on the type of analysis, but some general parameters are:
- Color: pale yellow to amber
- Clarity: clear or slightly cloudy
- Odor: faint aromatic
- pH: 4.5 to 8.0
- Specific gravity: 1.005 to 1.030
- Protein: <150 mg/24 hr
- Glucose: negative
- Ketones: negative
- Blood: negative
- Nitrites: negative
- Leukocyte esterase: negative
- Bacteria: <10,000 CFU/mL
A nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted to the hospital.
Select the 5 actions the nurse should take.
A. Provide frequent rest periods for the client.
Provide frequent rest periods for the client. This is correct because the client has anaemia (low haemoglobin and hematocrit), which can cause weakness and fatigue. Rest periods can help conserve energy and prevent complications.
B. Instruct the client to avoid blowing their nose forcefully.
Instruct the client to avoid blowing their nose forcefully. This is correct because the client has thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), which can increase the risk of bleeding. Blowing the nose forcefully can cause nasal bleeding or rupture of blood vessels.
C. Assess the client s level of orientation.
Assess the client’s level of orientation. This is correct because the client has hepatic encephalopathy (brain dysfunction due to liver failure), which can cause confusion, mood changes, and disorientation. Assessing the client’s level of orientation can help monitor the severity of hepatic encephalopathy and guide appropriate interventions.
D. Place the client on a low-carbohydrate diet.
Place the client on a low-carbohydrate diet. This is incorrect because a low-carbohydrate diet can worsen hepatic encephalopathy by increasing ammonia production in the gut. The client should be on a high-protein, high-calorie diet to provide adequate nutrition and prevent muscle wasting.
E. Restrict the client's sodium intake.
Restrict the client’s sodium intake. This is correct because the client has ascites (fluid accumulation in the abdomen) due to portal hypertension (high blood pressure in the portal vein). Restricting sodium intake can help reduce fluid retention and prevent further complications.
F. Advise the client to avoid the use of soap and alcohol-based lotions.
Advise the client to avoid the use of soap and alcohol-based lotions. This is correct because the client has pruritus (itching) due to high bilirubin levels in the blood. Soap and alcohol-based lotions can dry out the skin and worsen pruritus. The client should use mild cleansers and moisturizers to soothe the skin.
G. Place the client under contact isolation.
Place the client under contact isolation. This is incorrect because there is no indication that the client has an infectious disease that requires contact isolation. Contact isolation is used for clients who have diseases that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact with the client or their environment, such as Clostridioides difficile infection or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection.
Full Explanation
A: Provide frequent rest periods for the client. This is correct because the client has anaemia (low haemoglobin and hematocrit), which can cause weakness and fatigue. Rest periods can help conserve energy and prevent complications.
B: Instruct the client to avoid blowing their nose forcefully. This is correct because the client has thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), which can increase the risk of bleeding. Blowing the nose forcefully can cause nasal bleeding or rupture of blood vessels.
C: Assess the client’s level of orientation. This is correct because the client has hepatic encephalopathy (brain dysfunction due to liver failure), which can cause confusion, mood changes, and disorientation. Assessing the client’s level of orientation can help monitor the severity of hepatic encephalopathy and guide appropriate interventions.
D: Place the client on a low-carbohydrate diet. This is incorrect because a low-carbohydrate diet can worsen hepatic encephalopathy by increasing ammonia production in the gut. The client should be on a high-protein, high-calorie diet to provide adequate nutrition and prevent muscle wasting.
E: Restrict the client’s sodium intake. This is correct because the client has ascites (fluid accumulation in the abdomen) due to portal hypertension (high blood pressure in the portal vein). Restricting sodium intake can help reduce fluid retention and prevent further complications.
F Advise the client to avoid the use of soap and alcohol-based lotions. This is correct because the client has pruritus (itching) due to high bilirubin levels in the blood. Soap and alcohol-based lotions can dry out the skin and worsen pruritus. The client should use mild cleansers and moisturizers to soothe the skin.
G: Place the client under contact isolation. This is incorrect because there is no indication that the client has an infectious disease that requires contact isolation. Contact isolation is used for clients who have diseases that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact with the client or their environment, such as Clostridioides difficile infection or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection.
A nurse in an emergency department is reviewing the medical record of a client who is having an acute myocardial infarction.
Which of the following findings places the client at risk if he receives alteplase?
A. Family history of malignant hypertension.
because family history of malignant hypertension is not an absolute contraindication for alteplase, although uncontrolled hypertension (>185 mmHg SBP or >110 mmHg DBP) is.
B. Hip arthroplasty 1 week ago.
Alteplase is a drug that dissolves blood clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin. It can be used for acute ischemic stroke, but it has some contraindications that depend on the indication and the type of administration of the drug. Some common contraindications for alteplase are hypersensitivity, active internal bleeding, history of intracranial hemorrhage, bleeding disorders, and high blood pressure. Other contraindications may vary depending on the specific condition and the time window of treatment. Alteplase can cause serious or fatal bleeding as a side effect.
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
because chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a contraindication for alteplase, although it may increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage.
D. Acute renal failure 6 months ago.
because acute renal failure 6 months ago is not a contraindication for alteplase, although current use of direct thrombin inhibitors or direct factor Xa inhibitors is. Normal ranges for blood pressure are <120/80 mmHg for normal, 120-129/<80 mmHg for elevated, 130-139/80-89 mmHg for stage 1 hypertension, and ≥140/≥90 mmHg for stage 2 hypertension.
Full Explanation
The correct answer is B. Hip arthroplasty 1 week ago.
Alteplase is a drug that dissolves blood clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin. It can be used for acute ischemic stroke, but it has some contraindications that depend on the indication and the type of administration of the drug. Some common contraindications for alteplase are hypersensitivity, active internal bleeding, history of intracranial hemorrhage, bleeding disorders, and high blood pressure. Other contraindications may vary depending on the specific condition and the time window of treatment. Alteplase can cause serious or fatal bleeding as a side effect.
Choice A is wrong because family history of malignant hypertension is not an absolute contraindication for alteplase, although uncontrolled hypertension (>185 mmHg SBP or >110 mmHg DBP) is.
Choice C is wrong because chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a contraindication for alteplase, although it may increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage.
Choice D is wrong because acute renal failure 6 months ago is not a contraindication for alteplase, although current use of direct thrombin inhibitors or direct factor Xa inhibitors is.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are <120/80 mmHg for normal, 120-129/<80 mmHg for elevated, 130-139/80-89 mmHg for stage 1 hypertension, and ≥140/≥90 mmHg for stage 2 hypertension.
Normal ranges for platelet count are 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood.
Normal ranges for INR are 0.8 to 1.2 for people who are not taking blood thinners and 2 to 3 for people who are taking warfarin.
Normal ranges for aPTT are 25 to 35 seconds for people who are not taking blood thinners and 46 to 70 seconds for people who are taking heparin.