Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion.
For which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse monitor the client
A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
B. 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick.
wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia. Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
C. Pulse rate 100/min.
because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect. Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
D. Urine output 20 mL/hr.
because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
E. undefined
None
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Proctored Exam A. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
Similar Questions
A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients.
Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
wrong because a client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr is not in immediate danger and can be assessed later. The nurse should verify the client’s consent, allergies, and vital signs before the procedure, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
B. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.
wrong because a client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain is likely to have improved pain relief and does not need immediate assessment.
C. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level. This client should be assessed first because they are at risk of hypoglycemia, which is a medical emergency that can cause seizures, coma, or death if not treated promptly. The nurse should check the client’s blood glucose level again and provide additional carbohydrates or glucose if needed.
D. A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag.
wrong because a client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag is not in immediate danger and can be assessed later.
E. undefined
Full Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
This client should be assessed first because they are at risk of hypoglycemia, which is a medical emergency that can cause seizures, coma, or death if not treated promptly.
The nurse should check the client’s blood glucose level again and provide additional carbohydrates or glucose if needed.
Choice A is wrong because a client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr is not in immediate danger and can be assessed later.
The nurse should verify the client’s consent, allergies, and vital signs before the procedure, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
Choice B is wrong because a client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain is likely to have improved pain relief and does not need immediate assessment.
The nurse should monitor the client’s pain level, vital signs, and respiratory status periodically, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag is not in immediate danger and can be assessed later.
The nurse should change the IV bag when it is empty or nearly empty, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
Normal blood glucose levels are between 70 to 100 mg/dL (3.9 to 5.5 mmol/L) when fasting, and less than 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) two hours after eating. A blood glucose level below 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) is considered hypoglycemia and requires immediate treatment. Orange juice is a source of simple carbohydrates that can raise blood glucose quickly, but it may not be enough to prevent hypoglycemia in some cases.
A nurse in a PACU is transferring care of a client to a nurse on the medical-surgical unit.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the hand-off report?
A. “The client was intubated without complications.”
“The client was intubated without complications.” is not relevant for the postoperative care of the patient. The intubation status is usually documented in the anesthesia record and does not need to be repeated in the hand-off report unless there were any issues or injuries related to the airway management.
B. “There was a total of 10 sponges used during the procedure.”
“There was a total of 10 sponges used during the procedure.” is not pertinent for the postoperative care of the patient. The number of sponges used during the surgery is usually counted and verified by the scrub nurse and the circulating nurse in the operating room to prevent any retained foreign bodies. This information does not need to be communicated to the PACU nurse unless there was a discrepancy or a missing sponge.
C. “The estimated blood loss was 250 milliliters.”
This statement should be included in the hand-off report because it provides essential information about the patient’s intraoperative status and potential postoperative complications, such as hypovolemia, anemia, or infection. The estimated blood loss (EBL) is an important indicator of the patient’s fluid balance and hemodynamic stability.
D. “The client is a member of the board of directors.”.
“The client is a member of the board of directors.” is not appropriate for the hand-off report. This statement violates the patient’s privacy and confidentiality and does not contribute to the quality or safety of care. The patient’s role or position in the organization should not influence the hand-off communication or the postoperative care.
Full Explanation
This statement should be included in the hand-off report because it provides essential information about the patient’s intraoperative status and potential postoperative complications, such as hypovolemia, anemia, or infection. The estimated blood loss (EBL) is an important indicator of the patient’s fluid balance and hemodynamic stability.
Choice A is wrong because “The client was intubated without complications.” is not relevant for the postoperative care of the patient. The intubation status is usually documented in the anesthesia record and does not need to be repeated in the hand-off report unless there were any issues or injuries related to the airway management.
Choice B is wrong because “There was a total of 10 sponges used during the procedure.” is not pertinent for the postoperative care of the patient.
The number of sponges used during the surgery is usually counted and verified by the scrub nurse and the circulating nurse in the operating room to prevent any retained foreign bodies. This information does not need to be communicated to the PACU nurse unless there was a discrepancy or a missing sponge.
Choice D is wrong because “The client is a member of the board of directors.” is not appropriate for the hand-off report.
This statement violates the patient’s privacy and confidentiality and does not contribute to the quality or safety of care. The patient’s role or position in the organization should not influence the hand-off communication or the postoperative care.
A hand-off report is a critical communication tool that facilitates the transfer of care from one provider to another. It should include relevant information about the patient’s medical history, surgical procedure, intraoperative events, postoperative plan, and any concerns or potential problems.
A standardized hand-off tool, such as SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation), can help improve the consistency, accuracy, and completeness of the hand-off report.
Some normal ranges that may be useful for postoperative care are:
- Blood pressure: 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg
- Pulse: 60 to 100 beats/min
- Respiratory rate: 12 to 20 breaths/min
- Oxygen saturation: 95% to 100%
- Temperature: 36°C to 37.5°C
- Hemoglobin: 12 to 18 g/dL
- Hematocrit: 36% to 54%
A nurse is teaching a client who has atrial fibrillation and is to start taking dabigatran.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. “I can store the medication in the refrigerator.”.
wrong because storing the medication in the refrigerator can expose it to moisture and cause it to break down
B. “I should keep the medication in the original container.”.
Dabigatran is a blood thinner that is used to prevent strokes or blood clots in people with atrial fibrillation, a type of irregular heartbeat. Dabigatran is sensitive to moisture and can lose its potency if exposed to humidity or heat. Therefore, it is important to store it in the original bottle or blister package that has a desiccant (drying agent) in the cap or cover. The client should also close the cap tightly after each use and keep the bottle away from excessive moisture, heat, and cold.
C. “I can crush the medication and mix with applesauce.”.
wrong because crushing the medication and mixing it with applesauce can alter its absorption and effectiveness
D. “I should replace any unused medication every 6 months.”.
is wrong because the medication can be used up to 60 days after opening the bottle as long as it is stored properly. The normal dose of dabigatran for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation is 150 mg twice a day, unless the client has kidney problems or other factors that require a lower dose.
E. undefined
Full Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The client should keep the medication in the original container.
Dabigatran is a blood thinner that is used to prevent strokes or blood clots in people with atrial fibrillation, a type of irregular heartbeat. Dabigatran is sensitive to moisture and can lose its potency if exposed to humidity or heat. Therefore, it is important to store it in the original bottle or blister package that has a desiccant (drying agent) in the cap or cover. The client should also close the cap tightly after each use and keep the bottle away from excessive moisture, heat, and cold.
Choice A is wrong because storing the medication in the refrigerator can expose it to moisture and cause it to break down. Choice C is wrong because crushing the medication and mixing it with applesauce can alter its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D is wrong because the medication can be used up to 60 days after opening the bottle as long as it is stored properly. The normal dose of dabigatran for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation is 150 mg twice a day, unless the client has kidney problems or other factors that require a lower dose.