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NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question

A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia during a prenatal visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A. Blood glucose 110 mg/dL.

A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL is within the normal range for a non-pregnant individual. During pregnancy, the target range for blood glucose levels may vary, but 110 mg/dL does not typically raise concerns for preeclampsia.

B. Urine protein of 3+.

Urine protein of 3+

C. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL.

A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While hemoglobin levels are important to monitor during pregnancy, this value alone does not indicate a significant concern related to preeclampsia.

D. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+.

Deep tendon reflexes (DTR) of 2+ are within the normal range. Higher DTR levels may be concerning, but a 2+ rating is normal and does not raise immediate alarm for preeclampsia.

This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Maternal Newborn 2019 NGN Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now


Full Explanation

Choice A rationale: 

A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL is within the normal range for a non-pregnant individual. During pregnancy, the target range for blood glucose levels may vary, but 110 mg/dL does not typically raise concerns for preeclampsia. 

Choice C rationale: 

A haemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While haemoglobin levels are important to monitor during pregnancy, this value alone does not indicate a significant concern related to preeclampsia. 

Choice D rationale: 

Deep tendon reflexes (DTR) of 2+ are within the normal range. Higher DTR levels may be concerning, but a 2+ rating is normal and does not raise immediate alarm for preeclampsia. 


Similar Questions

QUESTION

A nurse is monitoring a client who is undergoing a nonstress test at 35 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?

A. An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline.

A non-stress test (NST) is supposed to assess fetal well-being by looking for accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement. An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline is a desirable finding in an NST, indicating good fetal reactivity.

B. Three uterine contractions within a 20-min period.

While not typical during a standard NST, three uterine contractions within a 20-minute period might not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, the nurse should document it and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment, especially if the contractions are causing discomfort or if there are other concerning signs.

C. One acceleration of the FHR within a 20-min period.

A single acceleration of the FHR within a 20-minute NST is considered non-reactive and may indicate fetal compromise. This finding requires further investigation by the healthcare provider, potentially including additional monitoring or interventions.

D. Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each.

Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each are not a typical finding during an NST, but they may not necessarily be a cause for immediate concern unless they are causing the client pain or are accompanied by other concerning signs. The nurse should document the contractions and notify the healthcare provider.

Full Explanation

The correct answer is choice c. One acceleration of the FHR within a 20-min period.

Here's the rationale for each choice:

Choice A: Rationale: A non-stress test (NST) is supposed to assess fetal well-being by looking for accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement. An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline is a desirable finding in an NST, indicating good fetal reactivity.

Choice B: Rationale: While not typical during a standard NST, three uterine contractions within a 20-minute period might not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, the nurse should document it and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment, especially if the contractions are causing discomfort or if there are other concerning signs.

Choice C: Rationale: A single acceleration of the FHR within a 20-minute NST is considered non-reactive and may indicate fetal compromise. This finding requires further investigation by the healthcare provider, potentially including additional monitoring or interventions.

Choice D: Rationale: Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each are not a typical finding during an NST, but they may not necessarily be a cause for immediate concern unless they are causing the client pain or are accompanied by other concerning signs. The nurse should document the contractions and notify the healthcare provider.

QUESTION

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report for a client who is in active labor. The client tested positive for group B streptococcus B-hemolytic. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to the client?

A. Doxycycline.

Rationale against: Poor penetration into amniotic fluid:Doxycycline does not effectively reach the amniotic sac,where the baby is surrounded,and therefore may not adequately protect the newborn from GBS infection. Adverse effects in newborns:Doxycycline can cause tooth discoloration and bone development problems in infants exposed in utero.

B. Cefotetan.

Rationale for: Alternative for penicillin allergy:Cefotetan is a cephalosporin antibiotic effective against GBS and can be used in women with penicillin allergy. Rationale against: Second-line option:Ampicillin is the preferred choice due to its lower cost and broader spectrum of activity against GBS strains.

C. Ampicillin.

Rationale: Group B Streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolyticis a bacterium that can colonize the vagina and rectum of pregnant women.While usually harmless to the mother,it can be passed to the newborn during birth and cause serious infections,including pneumonia,meningitis,and sepsis. Ampicillinis thefirst-line antibioticrecommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for theprevention of GBS disease in newborns.It belongs to thepenicillin classof antibiotics,which are highly effective against GBS and generally well-tolerated by pregnant women and newborns. Rationale for: First-line antibiotic:Ampicillin is the CDC-recommended first-line antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis due to its: High effectiveness against GBS:Ampicillin has a broad spectrum of activity against GBS strains. Good safety profile:Ampicillin is generally well-tolerated by pregnant women and newborns. Cost-effectiveness:Ampicillin is a relatively inexpensive antibiotic compared to other options. Doxycyclineis not recommended for GBS prophylaxis due to its poor penetration into amniotic fluid and potential for causing tooth discoloration and bone development problems in newborns. Cefotetanis an alternative option for women with penicillin allergy,but ampicillin is still preferred due to its lower cost and broader spectrum of activity against GBS strains. Fluconazoleis an antifungal medication and has no activity against GBS bacteria.

D. Fluconazole.

Rationale against: Antifungal medication:Fluconazole is an antifungal medication and has no activity against GBS,which is a bacterium.

Full Explanation

The correct answer is c. Ampicillin.

Rationale:

  • Group B Streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic is a bacterium that can colonize the vagina and rectum of pregnant women. While usually harmless to the mother, it can be passed to the newborn during birth and cause serious infections, including pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis.
  • Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for the prevention of GBS disease in newborns. It belongs to the penicillin class of antibiotics, which are highly effective against GBS and generally well-tolerated by pregnant women and newborns.
  • Doxycycline is not recommended for GBS prophylaxis due to its poor penetration into amniotic fluid and potential for causing tooth discoloration and bone development problems in newborns.
  • Cefotetan is an alternative option for women with penicillin allergy, but ampicillin is still preferred due to its lower cost and broader spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
  • Fluconazole is an antifungal medication and has no activity against GBS bacteria.

Detailed Rationale for Each Choice:

a. Doxycycline:

  • Rationale against:
    • Poor penetration into amniotic fluid: Doxycycline does not effectively reach the amniotic sac, where the baby is surrounded, and therefore may not adequately protect the newborn from GBS infection.
    • Adverse effects in newborns: Doxycycline can cause tooth discoloration and bone development problems in infants exposed in utero.

b. Cefotetan:

  • Rationale for:
    • Alternative for penicillin allergy: Cefotetan is a cephalosporin antibiotic effective against GBS and can be used in women with penicillin allergy.
  • Rationale against:
    • Second-line option: Ampicillin is the preferred choice due to its lower cost and broader spectrum of activity against GBS strains.

c. Ampicillin:

  • Rationale for:
    • First-line antibiotic: Ampicillin is the CDC-recommended first-line antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis due to its:
      • High effectiveness against GBS: Ampicillin has a broad spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
      • Good safety profile: Ampicillin is generally well-tolerated by pregnant women and newborns.
      • Cost-effectiveness: Ampicillin is a relatively inexpensive antibiotic compared to other options.

d. Fluconazole:

  • Rationale against:
    • Antifungal medication: Fluconazole is an antifungal medication and has no activity against GBS, which is a bacterium.
QUESTION

A nurse is caring for a newborn who has neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Swaddle the newborn with his legs extended.

Swaddling the newborn with his legs extended is not the appropriate action for a newborn with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS). NAS occurs when a baby is born dependent on drugs, usually because the mother used opioids during pregnancy. Swaddling may provide some comfort, but extending the legs could increase discomfort and agitation.

B. Schedule larger volume feedings at less frequent intervals.

Scheduling larger volume feedings at less frequent intervals is not the correct approach for a newborn with NAS. These infants often have feeding difficulties and may require smaller, more frequent feedings to reduce the risk of aspiration.

C. Maintain eye contact with the newborn during feedings.

Maintaining eye contact with the newborn during feedings may not be well-tolerated by a baby with NAS. They can be irritable and easily overstimulated, and eye contact during feeding may exacerbate their agitation.

D. Plan care to minimize handling of the newborn.

Planning care to minimize handling of the newborn is the most appropriate action for a baby with NAS. These infants are sensitive to stimuli and can become agitated easily, so minimizing unnecessary handling helps reduce their distress.

Full Explanation

Choice A rationale: 
Swaddling the newborn with his legs extended is not the appropriate action for a newborn with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS). NAS occurs when a baby is born dependent on drugs, usually because the mother used opioids during pregnancy. Swaddling may provide some comfort, but extending the legs could increase discomfort and agitation. 

Choice B rationale: 
Scheduling larger volume feedings at less frequent intervals is not the correct approach for a  newborn with NAS. These infants often have feeding difficulties and may require smaller,  more frequent feedings to reduce the risk of aspiration. 

Choice C rationale: 
Maintaining eye contact with the newborn during feedings may not be well-tolerated by a  baby with NAS. They can be irritable and easily overstimulated, and eye contact during feeding may exacerbate their agitation. 

Choice D rationale:
Planning care to minimize handling of the newborn is the most appropriate action for a baby with NAS. These infants are sensitive to stimuli and can become agitated easily, so minimizing unnecessary handling helps reduce their distress. 

The correct answer is D. Plan care to minimize handling of the newborn.

Here's why:

  • Swaddling with legs extended: This is not recommended as it can be uncomfortable for the newborn and may exacerbate withdrawal symptoms.
  • Larger volume feedings at less frequent intervals: This can be difficult for newborns with NAS due to their increased metabolic rate and may lead to overfeeding.
  • Maintaining eye contact during feedings: While this is important for bonding, it can be overwhelming for newborns with NAS, who often prefer a calm environment.

Minimizing handling is a key intervention in caring for newborns with NAS. Excessive handling can trigger withdrawal symptoms and make the newborn more irritable. Instead, focus on gentle, soothing techniques like swaddling with arms tucked in, rocking, and providing a quiet, dimly lit environment.