Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A nurse is assessing four female clients for obesity. Which of the following clients have manifestations of obesity?
A. Client who weighs 28% above ideal body weight
This is the correct answer because weighing 28% above ideal body weight is a sign of obesity. Ideal body weight is an estimate of the weight that corresponds to the lowest mortality for a given height and gender. Obesity is defined as having a body weight that is 20% or more above ideal body weight.
B. Client who has a waist circumference of 81.3 cm (32 in)
This is not the correct answer because having a waist circumference of 81.3 cm (32 in) is not a manifestation of obesity. Waist circumference is a measure of abdominal fat, which is associated with increased health risks. However, the cut-off point for waist circumference varies by gender and ethnicity. For women, a waist circumference of more than 88 cm (35 in) is considered high.
C. Client who has a BMI of 28
This is not the correct answer because having a BMI of 28 is not a manifestation of obesity. BMI is a measure of body mass index, which is calculated by dividing weight in kilograms by height in meters squared. BMI is used to classify weight status and health risks. For adults, a BMI of 18.5 to 24.9 is considered normal, 25 to 29.9 is considered overweight, and 30 or more is considered obese.
D. Client who has a body fat of 22%
This is not the correct answer because having a body fat of 22% is not a manifestation of obesity. Body fat is a measure of the percentage of fat in the body, which is determined by various methods such as skinfold thickness, bioelectrical impedance, or underwater weighing. Body fat is influenced by age, gender, and physical activity. For women, a body fat of 21 to 33% is considered normal, 33 to 39% is considered high, and more than 39% is considered very high.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Ati Med Surg Nursing 102 Proctored Exam 4. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because weighing 28% above ideal body weight is a sign of obesity. Ideal body weight is an estimate of the weight that corresponds to the lowest mortality for a given height and gender. Obesity is defined as having a body weight that is 20% or more above ideal body weight.
Choice B reason: This is not the correct answer because having a waist circumference of 81.3 cm (32 in) is not a manifestation of obesity. Waist circumference is a measure of abdominal fat, which is associated with increased health risks. However, the cut-off point for waist circumference varies by gender and ethnicity. For women, a waist circumference of more than 88 cm (35 in) is considered high.
Choice C reason: This is not the correct answer because having a BMI of 28 is not a manifestation of obesity. BMI is a measure of body mass index, which is calculated by dividing weight in kilograms by height in meters squared. BMI is used to classify weight status and health risks. For adults, a BMI of 18.5 to 24.9 is considered normal, 25 to 29.9 is considered overweight, and 30 or more is considered obese.
Choice D reason: This is not the correct answer because having a body fat of 22% is not a manifestation of obesity. Body fat is a measure of the percentage of fat in the body, which is determined by various methods such as skinfold thickness, bioelectrical impedance, or underwater weighing. Body fat is influenced by age, gender, and physical activity. For women, a body fat of 21 to 33% is considered normal, 33 to 39% is considered high, and more than 39% is considered very high.
Similar Questions
A nurse is caring for an adult client who has a fever of 39.4°C (103°F) and is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. Over the last hour, the nurse notes that the client's urine output is 20 mL. The nurse should report this finding to the provider and anticipate a prescription for what?
A. An antipyretic medication
An antipyretic medication is not the best answer because it does not address the client's low urine output. An antipyretic medication is a drug that lowers the body temperature by reducing the production of heat or increasing the loss of heat. It may help the client feel more comfortable, but it does not improve the kidney function or prevent dehydration.
B. A diuretic medication
A diuretic medication is not the best answer because it may worsen the client's low urine output. A diuretic medication is a drug that increases the excretion of water and electrolytes by the kidneys. It may lower the blood pressure and reduce the fluid overload, but it may also cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and kidney damage.
C. A blood culture
A blood culture is not the best answer because it does not address the client's low urine output. A blood culture is a laboratory test that detects the presence of bacteria or other microorganisms in the blood. It may help identify the cause of the fever and guide the antibiotic therapy, but it does not improve the kidney function or prevent dehydration.
D. A fluid bolus
A fluid bolus is the best answer because it may improve the client's low urine output. A fluid bolus is a rapid infusion of a large volume of fluid, usually isotonic saline or lactated Ringer's solution. It may increase the blood volume and pressure, improve the tissue perfusion, and stimulate the urine production. It may also help lower the fever by diluting the pyrogens and increasing the heat loss.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: An antipyretic medication is not the best answer because it does not address the client's low urine output. An antipyretic medication is a drug that lowers the body temperature by reducing the production of heat or increasing the loss of heat. It may help the client feel more comfortable, but it does not improve the kidney function or prevent dehydration.
Choice B reason: A diuretic medication is not the best answer because it may worsen the client's low urine output. A diuretic medication is a drug that increases the excretion of water and electrolytes by the kidneys. It may lower the blood pressure and reduce the fluid overload, but it may also cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and kidney damage.
Choice C reason: A blood culture is not the best answer because it does not address the client's low urine output. A blood culture is a laboratory test that detects the presence of bacteria or other microorganisms in the blood. It may help identify the cause of the fever and guide the antibiotic therapy, but it does not improve the kidney function or prevent dehydration.
Choice D reason: A fluid bolus is the best answer because it may improve the client's low urine output. A fluid bolus is a rapid infusion of a large volume of fluid, usually isotonic saline or lactated Ringer's solution. It may increase the blood volume and pressure, improve the tissue perfusion, and stimulate the urine production. It may also help lower the fever by diluting the pyrogens and increasing the heat loss.
A client admitted with acute diverticulitis has experienced a sudden increase in temperature and reports a sudden onset of extreme abdominal tenderness. The nurse's rapid assessment reveals that the client's abdomen is uncharacteristically rigid on palpation. What is the nurse's best response?
A. Call the primary provider and report that the client may be obstructed.
This is not the best response because it does not accurately describe the client's condition. Obstruction is a possible complication of diverticulitis, but it is not indicated by fever and abdominal rigidity. Obstruction is more likely to cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, constipation, and abdominal distension.
B. Position the client supine and insert an NG tube.
This is not the best response because it can worsen the client's condition. Positioning the client supine and inserting an NG tube are interventions for gastric outlet obstruction, not diverticulitis. An NG tube can increase the risk of infection and perforation in the inflamed colon. Supine position can also increase the pressure on the abdomen and cause more pain and discomfort.
C. Administer a fleet enema as prescribed and remain with the client.
This is not the best response because it can be harmful to the client. Administering a fleet enema is contraindicated for diverticulitis, as it can cause more inflammation, bleeding, or perforation in the colon. A fleet enema is a type of laxative that contains sodium phosphate and is used to relieve constipation or prepare for colonoscopy.
D. Contact the primary provider promptly and report these signs of perforation.
This is the best response because it is the most appropriate and urgent action for the client. Contacting the primary provider promptly and reporting these signs of perforation is essential for the client's safety and treatment. Perforation is a life-threatening complication of diverticulitis, where the colon wall ruptures and causes peritonitis, which is inflammation of the abdominal cavity. Perforation can cause symptoms such as fever, abdominal rigidity, tenderness, and rebound pain. Perforation requires immediate surgical intervention and antibiotic therapy.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not the best response because it does not accurately describe the client's condition. Obstruction is a possible complication of diverticulitis, but it is not indicated by fever and abdominal rigidity. Obstruction is more likely to cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, constipation, and abdominal distension.
Choice B reason: This is not the best response because it can worsen the client's condition. Positioning the client supine and inserting an NG tube are interventions for gastric outlet obstruction, not diverticulitis. An NG tube can increase the risk of infection and perforation in the inflamed colon. Supine position can also increase the pressure on the abdomen and cause more pain and discomfort.
Choice C reason: This is not the best response because it can be harmful to the client. Administering a fleet enema is contraindicated for diverticulitis, as it can cause more inflammation, bleeding, or perforation in the colon. A fleet enema is a type of laxative that contains sodium phosphate and is used to relieve constipation or prepare for colonoscopy.
Choice D reason: This is the best response because it is the most appropriate and urgent action for the client. Contacting the primary provider promptly and reporting these signs of perforation is essential for the client's safety and treatment. Perforation is a life-threatening complication of diverticulitis, where the colon wall ruptures and causes peritonitis, which is inflammation of the abdominal cavity. Perforation can cause symptoms such as fever, abdominal rigidity, tenderness, and rebound pain. Perforation requires immediate surgical intervention and antibiotic therapy.
The nurse is preparing to discharge a client newly diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. The client's diagnostic test results were positive for H. pylori bacteria. The health care provider has ordered the "triple therapy" regimen. Which medications will the nurse educate the client on?
A. H2-receptor antagonist and two antibiotics
H2-receptor antagonist and two antibiotics is not the correct combination for the "triple therapy" regimen. H2-receptor antagonists are drugs that block the action of histamine on the stomach cells, reducing the production of acid. They are used to treat peptic ulcers, but they are not effective against H. pylori bacteria. The "triple therapy" regimen requires an antibiotic to kill the bacteria, and a proton-pump inhibitor to reduce the acid secretion and promote healing.
B. Two proton-pump inhibitors and an antibiotic
Two proton-pump inhibitors and an antibiotic is not the correct combination for the "triple therapy" regimen. Proton-pump inhibitors are drugs that block the enzyme that produces acid in the stomach, lowering the acidity and allowing the ulcer to heal. They are used to treat peptic ulcers, but they are not enough to eradicate H. pylori bacteria. The "triple therapy" regimen requires two antibiotics to kill the bacteria, and one proton-pump inhibitor to reduce the acid secretion and promote healing.
C. H2-receptor antagonist, proton pump inhibitor, and an antibiotic
H2-receptor antagonist, proton pump inhibitor, and an antibiotic is not the correct combination for the "triple therapy" regimen. H2-receptor antagonists and proton-pump inhibitors have similar effects on the stomach acid, but they work in different ways. They are both used to treat peptic ulcers, but they are not necessary to use together. The "triple therapy" regimen requires two antibiotics to kill the bacteria, and one proton-pump inhibitor to reduce the acid secretion and promote healing.
D. Proton-pump inhibitor and two antibiotics
Proton-pump inhibitor and two antibiotics is the correct combination for the "triple therapy" regimen. Proton-pump inhibitors are drugs that block the enzyme that produces acid in the stomach, lowering the acidity and allowing the ulcer to heal. They are used to treat peptic ulcers, and they also enhance the effectiveness of the antibiotics. The "triple therapy" regimen requires two antibiotics to kill the H. pylori bacteria, and one proton-pump inhibitor to reduce the acid secretion and promote healing. The most common antibiotics used are amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and metronidazole.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: H2-receptor antagonist and two antibiotics is not the correct combination for the "triple therapy" regimen. H2-receptor antagonists are drugs that block the action of histamine on the stomach cells, reducing the production of acid. They are used to treat peptic ulcers, but they are not effective against H. pylori bacteria. The "triple therapy" regimen requires an antibiotic to kill the bacteria, and a proton-pump inhibitor to reduce the acid secretion and promote healing.
Choice B reason: Two proton-pump inhibitors and an antibiotic is not the correct combination for the "triple therapy" regimen. Proton-pump inhibitors are drugs that block the enzyme that produces acid in the stomach, lowering the acidity and allowing the ulcer to heal. They are used to treat peptic ulcers, but they are not enough to eradicate H. pylori bacteria. The "triple therapy" regimen requires two antibiotics to kill the bacteria, and one proton-pump inhibitor to reduce the acid secretion and promote healing.
Choice C reason: H2-receptor antagonist, proton pump inhibitor, and an antibiotic is not the correct combination for the "triple therapy" regimen. H2-receptor antagonists and proton-pump inhibitors have similar effects on the stomach acid, but they work in different ways. They are both used to treat peptic ulcers, but they are not necessary to use together. The "triple therapy" regimen requires two antibiotics to kill the bacteria, and one proton-pump inhibitor to reduce the acid secretion and promote healing.
Choice D reason: Proton-pump inhibitor and two antibiotics is the correct combination for the "triple therapy" regimen. Proton-pump inhibitors are drugs that block the enzyme that produces acid in the stomach, lowering the acidity and allowing the ulcer to heal. They are used to treat peptic ulcers, and they also enhance the effectiveness of the antibiotics. The "triple therapy" regimen requires two antibiotics to kill the H. pylori bacteria, and one proton-pump inhibitor to reduce the acid secretion and promote healing. The most common antibiotics used are amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and metronidazole.