Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. The nurse should recognize which of the following manifestations as an adverse reaction to the medication?
A. Urine output 20 mL/hr.
This manifestation, urine output of 20 mL/hr, is an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate administration. Magnesium sulfate can lead to decreased urine output, and it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's urinary output closely. Low urine output may indicate decreased kidney function, which can be a sign of magnesium toxicity.
B. Hypertension.
Hypertension is expected in a client with preeclampsia, and magnesium sulfate is used to help manage and prevent seizures in these cases. While it is essential to monitor and manage hypertension during pregnancy, it is not considered an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate.
C. Hyperglycemia.
Hyperglycemia is not a common adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate may cause central nervous system depression, muscle weakness, and respiratory depression, but it does not typically cause hyperglycemia.
D. Respiratory rate 16/min.
A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not indicative of an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression at higher doses, but a respiratory rate of 16/min does not raise immediate concerns.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Maternal Newborn 2019 NGN Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This manifestation, urine output of 20 mL/hr, is an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate administration. Magnesium sulfate can lead to decreased urine output, and it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's urinary output closely. Low urine output may indicate decreased kidney function, which can be a sign of magnesium toxicity.
Choice B rationale:
Hypertension is expected in a client with preeclampsia, and magnesium sulfate is used to help manage and prevent seizures in these cases. While it is essential to monitor and manage hypertension during pregnancy, it is not considered an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate.
Choice C rationale:
Hyperglycemia is not a common adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate may cause central nervous system depression, muscle weakness, and respiratory depression, but it does not typically cause hyperglycemia.
Choice D rationale:
A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not indicative of an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression at higher doses, but a respiratory rate of 16/min does not raise immediate concerns.
Similar Questions
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Hct 34%.
Hct (hematocrit) of 34% is a normal finding during pregnancy. Normal ranges vary during pregnancy, but generally, a hematocrit between 33% to 45% is considered normal during the second trimester.
B. BUN 25 mg/dL.
BUN (blood urea nitrogen) of 25 mg/dL should be reported to the provider. BUN measures kidney function, and during pregnancy, values above 20 mg/dL may indicate possible impaired kidney function, which requires further evaluation.
C. Platelets 170,000/mm.
Platelets of 170,000/mm³ are within the normal range during pregnancy. The normal platelet count during pregnancy is typically between 150,000 to 400,000/mm³.
D. HbA1c 6%.
HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) of 6% is a good indicator of blood sugar control and is within the target range for a pregnant woman with diabetes. The target HbA1c level for pregnant women with diabetes is usually around 6% or lower.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hct (hematocrit) of 34% is a normal finding during pregnancy. Normal ranges vary during pregnancy, but generally, a hematocrit between 33% to 45% is considered normal during the second trimester.
Choice B rationale:
BUN (blood urea nitrogen) of 25 mg/dL should be reported to the provider. BUN measures kidney function, and during pregnancy, values above 20 mg/dL may indicate possible impaired kidney function, which requires further evaluation.
Choice C rationale:
Platelets of 170,000/mm³ are within the normal range during pregnancy. The normal platelet count during pregnancy is typically between 150,000 to 400,000/mm³.
Choice D rationale:
HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) of 6% is a good indicator of blood sugar control and is within the target range for a pregnant woman with diabetes. The target HbA1c level for pregnant women with diabetes is usually around 6% or lower.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor. The nurse administers butorphanol IV bolus for pain. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider following this medication?
A. Blood pressure 136/88 mm Hg.
Blood pressure of 136/88 mm Hg should be monitored, but it is not a finding that the nurse needs to urgently report to the provider following the administration of butorphanol. The blood pressure reading is slightly elevated but might be attributed to pain or anxiety during labor.
B. Moderate fetal heart rate variability.
Moderate fetal heart rate variability is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and is an expected finding during labor. It does not require immediate reporting to the provider.
C. Respiratory rate 100/min.
Respiratory rate of 100/min is significantly increased and should be reported to the provider following the administration of butorphanol. Respiratory depression is a potential side effect of opioids like butorphanol, and a respiratory rate of 100/min raises concern for potential respiratory compromise.
D. Urinary output 120 mL in 2 hr.
Urinary output of 120 mL in 2 hours is an acceptable finding during labor and does not require immediate reporting to the provider. Adequate urinary output varies, but generally, 30 mL/hour is considered acceptable during labor.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Blood pressure of 136/88 mm Hg should be monitored, but it is not a finding that the nurse needs to urgently report to the provider following the administration of butorphanol. The blood pressure reading is slightly elevated but might be attributed to pain or anxiety during labor.
Choice B rationale:
Moderate fetal heart rate variability is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and is an expected finding during labor. It does not require immediate reporting to the provider.
Choice C rationale:
Respiratory rate of 100/min is significantly increased and should be reported to the provider following the administration of butorphanol. Respiratory depression is a potential side effect of opioids like butorphanol, and a respiratory rate of 100/min raises concern for potential respiratory compromise.
Choice D rationale:
Urinary output of 120 mL in 2 hours is an acceptable finding during labor and does not require immediate reporting to the provider. Adequate urinary output varies, but generally, 30 mL/hour is considered acceptable during labor.
A nurse is performing an assessment for a newborn and notes breast tissue that has a flat areola with no bud. The nurse should identify that this finding indicates which of the following conditions?
A. Preterm gestational age.
Flat areola without breast bud indicates immature breast tissue development, a marker of preterm gestational age due to incomplete fetal maturation of secondary sexual characteristics.
B. Decreased maternal hormones during pregnancy.
Decreased maternal hormones during pregnancy would result in less developed breast tissue in the newborn, but it wouldn't present as a flat areola with no bud. Instead, the breast tissue may be small and less pronounced.
C. Congenital anomaly.
Congenital anomalies involve structural malformations, not absence of breast bud, which is a normal developmental stage in preterm infants rather than a pathological anomaly.
D. Ambiguous secondary sex characteristics.
Ambiguous secondary sex characteristics would involve the presence of characteristics that are not clearly male or female. The described breast tissue does not fit this category, as it is specifically described as having a flat areola with no bud, which is more indicative of a congenital anomaly. Question 65.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale: Flat areola without breast bud indicates immature breast tissue development, a marker of preterm gestational age due to incomplete fetal maturation of secondary sexual characteristics.
Choice B rationale: Maternal hormones influence neonatal breast tissue temporarily, but absence of bud reflects developmental immaturity rather than decreased maternal hormones during pregnancy.
Choice C rationale: Congenital anomalies involve structural malformations, not absence of breast bud, which is a normal developmental stage in preterm infants rather than a pathological anomaly.
Choice D rationale: Ambiguous secondary sex characteristics refer to atypical genital or pubertal development, not neonatal breast tissue maturity, making this unrelated to the flat areola finding.