Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has a diagnosis of group B streptococcus B- hemolytic infection. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
A. Ampicillin.
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
B. Azithromycin.
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
C. Ceftriaxone.
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
D. Acyclovir.
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
Choice B rationale:
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
Choice D rationale:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
Similar Questions
A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth 12 hr ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing decreased cardiac output?
A. Bradycardia.
Bradycardia is not a finding indicating decreased cardiac output in this scenario. While bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) can be associated with decreased cardiac output in certain situations, it is not the primary finding in a postpartum client experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding.
B. Flushed face.
A flushed face is not an indicator of decreased cardiac output. A flushed face may result from various factors such as fever or emotional stress, but it is not directly related to cardiac output.
C. Hypotension.
Hypotension is a finding that indicates the client is experiencing decreased cardiac output. Excessive vaginal bleeding can lead to hypovolemia, reducing the volume of blood pumped by the heart and resulting in decreased cardiac output. The body responds to hypovolemia and decreased cardiac output by trying to maintain blood pressure, which leads to hypotension.
D. Polyuria.
Polyuria (excessive urination) is not an indicator of decreased cardiac output. Polyuria may occur due to factors like diuresis or increased fluid intake but is not directly related to cardiac output in the context of excessive vaginal bleeding.
Full Explanation
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension is a finding that indicates the client is experiencing decreased cardiac output. Excessive vaginal bleeding can lead to hypovolemia, reducing the volume of blood pumped by the heart and resulting in decreased cardiac output. The body responds to hypovolemia and decreased cardiac output by trying to maintain blood pressure, which leads to hypotension.
Choice A rationale:
Bradycardia is not a finding indicating decreased cardiac output in this scenario. While bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) can be associated with decreased cardiac output in certain situations, it is not the primary finding in a postpartum client experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
A flushed face is not an indicator of decreased cardiac output. A flushed face may result from various factors such as fever or emotional stress, but it is not directly related to cardiac output.
Choice D rationale:
Polyuria (excessive urination) is not an indicator of decreased cardiac output. Polyuria may occur due to factors like diuresis or increased fluid intake but is not directly related to cardiac output in the context of excessive vaginal bleeding.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "A yearly Pap test is recommended until 70 years of age.”
Current guidelines recommend that women aged 21 to 29 have a Pap test every three years, and those aged 30 to 65 can either have a Pap test every three years or a Pap plus HPV (human papillomavirus) test every five years. After age 65, and with a history of normal results, Pap tests may be discontinued.
B. "Pap tests are discontinued following removal of the ovaries.”
The nurse should not include choice B, "Pap tests are discontinued following removal of the ovaries,” in the teaching. The presence or absence of ovaries does not affect the need for Pap testing. The Pap test is primarily used to screen for cervical cancer, and its necessity is determined based on age and previous screening results, not on ovarian status.
C. "Avoid having sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test.”
Patients are advised to avoid sexual intercourse, douching, or using vaginal medications for 24 hours before the test to ensure accurate results.
D. "Viral infections can be detected by a Pap test.”
The nurse should not include choice D, "Viral infections can be detected by a Pap test,” in the teaching. The Pap test is not designed to detect viral infections. Instead, it is used to detect abnormal cervical cells, which may indicate pre-cancerous or cancerous changes.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Current guidelines recommend that women aged 21 to 29 have a Pap test every three years, and those aged 30 to 65 can either have a Pap test every three years or a Pap plus HPV (human papillomavirus) test every five years. After age 65, and with a history of normal results, Pap tests may be discontinued.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not include choice B, "Pap tests are discontinued following removal of the ovaries,” in the teaching. The presence or absence of ovaries does not affect the need for Pap testing. The Pap test is primarily used to screen for cervical cancer, and its necessity is determined based on age and previous screening results, not on ovarian status.
Choice C rationale:
Patients are advised to avoid sexual intercourse, douching, or using vaginal medications for 24 hours before the test to ensure accurate results.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not include choice D, "Viral infections can be detected by a Pap test,” in the teaching. The Pap test is not designed to detect viral infections. Instead, it is used to detect abnormal cervical cells, which may indicate pre-cancerous or cancerous changes.
Following delivery, the nurse places the newborn under a radiant heat warmer. Which of the following is this action used to prevent?
A. Cold stress.
Placing the newborn under a radiant heat warmer is used to prevent cold stress. Newborns are at risk of losing body heat rapidly, and cold stress can lead to various complications, including respiratory distress, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. The radiant heat warmer helps maintain the baby's body temperature within the normal range, promoting overall stability and reducing the risk of cold-related issues.
B. Respiratory depression.
The nurse should not choose choice B, "Respiratory depression,” as the action used to prevent. Placing the newborn under a radiant heat warmer does not specifically target respiratory depression. Respiratory depression in newborns may be related to various factors, such as anesthesia exposure during delivery or certain medications, and it requires appropriate monitoring and management rather than just heat regulation.
C. Thermogenesis.
The nurse should not choose choice C, "Thermogenesis,” as the action used to prevent. Thermogenesis refers to the generation of heat in the body, which is essential for maintaining body temperature. While the radiant heat warmer indirectly supports thermogenesis by preventing heat loss, the main purpose of using the warmer is to prevent cold stress, as stated in choice A.
D. Tachycardia.
The nurse should not choose choice D, "Tachycardia,” as the action used to prevent. Tachycardia refers to an abnormally fast heart rate, and the use of a radiant heat warmer does not specifically target this condition. The purpose of the warmer, as explained earlier, is to maintain the baby's body temperature and prevent cold stress, not to address tachycardia.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Placing the newborn under a radiant heat warmer is used to prevent cold stress. Newborns are at risk of losing body heat rapidly, and cold stress can lead to various complications, including respiratory distress, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. The radiant heat warmer helps maintain the baby's body temperature within the normal range, promoting overall stability and reducing the risk of cold-related issues.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not choose choice B, "Respiratory depression,” as the action used to prevent. Placing the newborn under a radiant heat warmer does not specifically target respiratory depression. Respiratory depression in newborns may be related to various factors, such as anesthesia exposure during delivery or certain medications, and it requires appropriate monitoring and management rather than just heat regulation.
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should not choose choice C, "Thermogenesis,” as the action used to prevent. Thermogenesis refers to the generation of heat in the body, which is essential for maintaining body temperature. While the radiant heat warmer indirectly supports thermogenesis by preventing heat loss, the main purpose of using the warmer is to prevent cold stress, as stated in choice A.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not choose choice D, "Tachycardia,” as the action used to prevent. Tachycardia refers to an abnormally fast heart rate, and the use of a radiant heat warmer does not specifically target this condition. The purpose of the warmer, as explained earlier, is to maintain the baby's body temperature and prevent cold stress, not to address tachycardia.