Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A nurse is caring for a client who is participating in a therapy session for anger management. The client states that their recent behavior is due to the loss of their job. The nurse should identify that the client is using which of the following defense mechanisms?
A. Projection
Projection, involves atributing one's own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or behaviors to others. This defense mechanism does not apply to the client's statement about their job loss.
B. Rationalization
Rationalization is a defense mechanism characterized by the individual's atempt to justify or explain their behavior or actions in a way that makes it more acceptable to themselves or others. It involves providing logical-sounding reasons or excuses to mask or minimize the real underlying reasons for their behavior.
C. Repression
Repression, involves the unconscious blocking of unwanted thoughts or feelings. It does not relate to the client's behavior or their explanation for it.
D. Sublimation
, Sublimation, is a defense mechanism where an individual channels or redirects unacceptable impulses or emotions into socially acceptable behaviors or activities. It is not applicable in this context since the client is not expressing their emotions or impulses through alternative constructive means.
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Full Explanation
b. Rationalization
Explanation:
The correct answer is b. Rationalization.
Rationalization is a defense mechanism characterized by the individual's atempt to justify or explain their behavior or actions in a way that makes it more acceptable to themselves or others. It involves providing logical-sounding reasons or excuses to mask or minimize the real underlying reasons for their behavior.
In this scenario, the client is atributing their recent behavior to the loss of their job, using it as a justification or explanation for their actions. By blaming the job loss, they are rationalizing their behavior as a direct result of the circumstances they faced.
Option a, Projection, involves atributing one's own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or behaviors to others.
This defense mechanism does not apply to the client's statement about their job loss.
Option c, Repression, involves the unconscious blocking of unwanted thoughts or feelings. It does not relate to the client's behavior or their explanation for it.
Option d, Sublimation, is a defense mechanism where an individual channels or redirects unacceptable impulses or emotions into socially acceptable behaviors or activities. It is not applicable in this context since the client is not expressing their emotions or impulses through alternative constructive means.
By identifying the client's explanation as rationalization, the nurse recognizes the defense mechanism being used and gains insight into how the client is coping with their emotions and justifying their behavior in response to the job loss. This understanding can guide the nurse in providing appropriate support and interventions to help the client manage their anger more effectively.
Similar Questions
A charge nurse is explaining the role of a licensed practical nurse to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following responsibilities should the charge nurse include?
A. Coordinating client care
The coordination of client care is primarily the responsibility of the RN. While LPNs may contribute to the coordination of care by providing input and collaborating with the healthcare team, the overall coordination is usually managed by the RN.
B. Providing direct client care
The charge nurse should explain to the assistive personnel (AP) that one of the responsibilities of a licensed practical nurse (LPN) is providing direct client care. LPNs work under the supervision of registered nurses (RNs) and are trained to deliver basic nursing care to clients. This includes tasks such as administering medications, monitoring vital signs, dressing wounds, assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs), and reporting any changes in the client's condition to the RN.
C. Assessing a client's health status
Assessing a client's health status is a role primarily performed by RNs. LPNs may gather data and contribute to the assessment process, but the comprehensive assessment and interpretation of data is typically the responsibility of the RN.
D. Identifying specific client health problems
Identifying specific client health problems and formulating nursing diagnoses is part of the RN's role. LPNs may assist in collecting data and providing input, but the identification and formulation of nursing diagnoses are within the scope of practice of the RN.
Full Explanation
The charge nurse should explain to the assistive personnel (AP) that one of the responsibilities of a licensed practical nurse (LPN) is providing direct client care. LPNs work under the supervision of registered nurses (RNs) and are trained to deliver basic nursing care to clients. This includes tasks such as administering medications, monitoring vital signs, dressing wounds, assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs), and reporting any changes in the client's condition to the RN.
The other options are not typically within the scope of practice for an LPN:
a. Coordinating client care: The coordination of client care is primarily the responsibility of the RN. While LPNs may contribute to the coordination of care by providing input and collaborating with the healthcare team, the overall coordination is usually managed by the RN.
c. Assessing a client's health status: Assessing a client's health status is a role primarily performed by RNs. LPNs may gather data and contribute to the assessment process, but the comprehensive assessment and interpretation of data is typically the responsibility of the RN.
d. Identifying specific client health problems: Identifying specific client health problems and formulating nursing diagnoses is part of the RN's role. LPNs may assist in collecting data and providing input, but the identification and formulation of nursing diagnoses are within the scope of practice of the RN.
A nurse is planning to administer an ophthalmic medication to a client. Which of the following actions will
minimize systemic absorption of the medication?
A. Apply light pressure to the inner canthus just after instilling the eye drops
A) Apply light pressure to the inner canthus just after instilling the eye drops. Applying pressure to the inner canthus (the corner of the eye nearest the nose) helps occlude the nasolacrimal duct. This action reduces the systemic absorption of the medication by preventing it from draining into the nasal passages and subsequently into the systemic circulation, thus enhancing the local effect of the eye drops.
B. Wipe the eye from the inner to the outer canthus with a sterile saline-moistened coton ball
B) Wipe the eye from the inner to the outer canthus with a sterile saline-moistened cotton ball. While this action may help remove excess medication or discharge, it does not minimize systemic absorption. Instead, wiping the eye could inadvertently spread the medication to other areas, increasing the chance of absorption rather than reducing it.
C. Administer the medication drops directly into the lower conjunctival sac of each eye
C) Administer the medication drops directly into the lower conjunctival sac of each eye. While placing drops in the lower conjunctival sac is a standard practice for delivering ophthalmic medications, it does not directly influence systemic absorption. The main goal is to ensure adequate dosing in the eye, but systemic absorption can still occur if the drops drain into the nasolacrimal duct.
D. Wait 5 min after instillation before instilling the drops in the other eye
D) Wait 5 min after instillation before instilling the drops in the other eye. Waiting between instillations is good practice to prevent dilution of the first dose and to allow for absorption. However, this action does not significantly impact systemic absorption. It focuses more on ensuring that the first dose is effective before administering a second dose.
E. None
None
F. None
None
Full Explanation
Answer: A. Apply light pressure to the inner canthus just after instilling the eye drops.
Rationale:
A) Apply light pressure to the inner canthus just after instilling the eye drops.
Applying pressure to the inner canthus (the corner of the eye nearest the nose) helps occlude the nasolacrimal duct. This action reduces the systemic absorption of the medication by preventing it from draining into the nasal passages and subsequently into the systemic circulation, thus enhancing the local effect of the eye drops.
B) Wipe the eye from the inner to the outer canthus with a sterile saline-moistened cotton ball.
While this action may help remove excess medication or discharge, it does not minimize systemic absorption. Instead, wiping the eye could inadvertently spread the medication to other areas, increasing the chance of absorption rather than reducing it.
C) Administer the medication drops directly into the lower conjunctival sac of each eye.
While placing drops in the lower conjunctival sac is a standard practice for delivering ophthalmic medications, it does not directly influence systemic absorption. The main goal is to ensure adequate dosing in the eye, but systemic absorption can still occur if the drops drain into the nasolacrimal duct.
D) Wait 5 min after instillation before instilling the drops in the other eye.
Waiting between instillations is good practice to prevent dilution of the first dose and to allow for absorption. However, this action does not significantly impact systemic absorption. It focuses more on ensuring that the first dose is effective before administering a second dose.
A nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving well-child check-ups. The nurse should identify that the initial diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (DTaP) vaccine is indicated for which of the following clients?
A. A 2-month-old infant
The initial diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (DTaP) vaccine is indicated for a 2-month-old infant. The DTaP vaccine is typically administered as a series of doses starting in infancy to provide protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (whooping cough). The recommended schedule for the DTaP vaccine includes a series of doses at 2, 4, and 6 months of age, with additional booster doses given later in childhood. Therefore, the first dose of DTaP is given to infants at 2 months of age.
B. A 4-month-old infant
By 4 months of age, the second dose of the DTaP vaccine should be administered, not the initial dose.
C. A 6-month-old infant
By 6 months of age, the third dose of the DTaP vaccine should be administered, not the initial dose.
D. A 15-month-old toddler
By 15 months of age, the toddler would have already received multiple doses of the DTaP vaccine as part of the recommended series. The initial dose is typically given earlier, at 2 months of age.
Full Explanation
The initial diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (DTaP) vaccine is indicated for a 2-month-old infant. The DTaP vaccine is typically administered as a series of doses starting in infancy to provide protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (whooping cough).
The recommended schedule for the DTaP vaccine includes a series of doses at 2, 4, and 6 months of age, with additional booster doses given later in childhood. Therefore, the first dose of DTaP is given to infants at 2 months of age.
The other options are incorrect because:
b) A 4-month-old infant: By 4 months of age, the second dose of the DTaP vaccine should be administered, not the initial dose.
c) A 6-month-old infant: By 6 months of age, the third dose of the DTaP vaccine should be administered, not the initial dose.
d) A 15-month-old toddler: By 15 months of age, the toddler would have already received multiple doses of the DTaP vaccine as part of the recommended series. The initial dose is typically given earlier, at 2 months of age.