Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A. A child who has mononucleosis and reports severe fatigue.
A child who has mononucleosis and reports severe fatigue requires medical attention, but this condition does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to acute epiglottitis. Mononucleosis is a viral infection that can cause fatigue, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. While the child should be assessed, the priority is given to the child with acute epiglottitis due to the potential for airway obstruction and respiratory distress.
B. A child who has Wilms' tumor and an abdominal mass.
A child who has Wilms' tumor and an abdominal mass also needs urgent medical evaluation. Wilms' tumor is a rare kidney cancer that primarily affects children. While it requires prompt attention, acute epiglottitis poses a more immediate threat to the airway and breathing.
C. A child who has acute epiglottitis and is drooling.
A child with acute epiglottitis and drooling requires immediate assessment and intervention. Acute epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening infection that can cause severe swelling of the epiglottis, leading to airway obstruction. The child may have difficulty breathing and may present with the classic drooling sign due to the inability to swallow saliva. Prompt medical intervention, including airway management and appropriate antibiotics, is essential in this situation.
D. A child who has a urinary tract infection and bright red blood in her urine.
A child with a urinary tract infection and bright red blood in her urine requires medical evaluation, but this condition is not as urgent as acute epiglottitis. Hematuria (blood in the urine) can have various causes, including urinary tract infections or kidney stones. While the child should receive medical attention, it does not take precedence over the immediate threat posed by acute epiglottitis, which requires urgent intervention to maintain the airway.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - RN Comprehensive Online Practice 2019 B with NGN Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A child who has mononucleosis and reports severe fatigue requires medical attention, but this condition does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to acute epiglottitis. Mononucleosis is a viral infection that can cause fatigue, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. While the child should be assessed, the priority is given to the child with acute epiglottitis due to the potential for airway obstruction and respiratory distress.
Choice B rationale:
A child who has Wilms' tumor and an abdominal mass also needs urgent medical evaluation. Wilms' tumor is a rare kidney cancer that primarily affects children. While it requires prompt attention, acute epiglottitis poses a more immediate threat to the airway and breathing.
Choice C rationale:
A child with acute epiglottitis and drooling requires immediate assessment and intervention. Acute epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening infection that can cause severe swelling of the epiglottis, leading to airway obstruction. The child may have difficulty breathing and may present with the classic drooling sign due to the inability to swallow saliva. Prompt medical intervention, including airway management and appropriate antibiotics, is essential in this situation.
Choice D rationale:
A child with a urinary tract infection and bright red blood in her urine requires medical evaluation, but this condition is not as urgent as acute epiglottitis. Hematuria (blood in the urine) can have various causes, including urinary tract infections or kidney stones. While the child should receive medical attention, it does not take precedence over the immediate threat posed by acute epiglottitis, which requires urgent intervention to maintain the airway.
Similar Questions
A community health nurse is providing education to a group of older adults about immunizations.
Which of the following immunizations should the nurse recommend?
A. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination is recommended for adolescents and young adults to prevent HPV-related cancers and diseases. However, in the context of older adults, especially those who are not previously vaccinated, the priority shifts to other immunizations that are more relevant to their age group.
B. Rotavirus.
Rotavirus vaccination is administered to infants to protect against rotavirus infections, which can cause severe diarrhea and dehydration. It is not a priority immunization for older adults. Older adults are at higher risk for certain diseases, and their immunization focus should be on vaccines that prevent those specific conditions.
C. Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP)
Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccination is essential for children and adults, especially for those who have not received a complete series of vaccinations. However, the question specifies older adults, and DTaP is typically administered to children. While it is crucial for healthcare providers and family members to stay up-to-date with their vaccinations, other immunizations are more pertinent for older adults.
D. Herpes zoster.
Herpes zoster vaccination (shingles vaccine) is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older. Herpes zoster is a painful rash caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox. Older adults are at higher risk of developing shingles, and vaccination can reduce the likelihood of the disease and its complications. Therefore, the nurse should recommend the herpes zoster vaccine to the group of older adults as it aligns with their age and addresses a specific health risk they face.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination is recommended for adolescents and young adults to prevent HPV-related cancers and diseases. However, in the context of older adults, especially those who are not previously vaccinated, the priority shifts to other immunizations that are more relevant to their age group.
Choice B rationale:
Rotavirus vaccination is administered to infants to protect against rotavirus infections, which can cause severe diarrhea and dehydration. It is not a priority immunization for older adults. Older adults are at higher risk for certain diseases, and their immunization focus should be on vaccines that prevent those specific conditions.
Choice C rationale:
Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccination is essential for children and adults, especially for those who have not received a complete series of vaccinations. However, the question specifies older adults, and DTaP is typically administered to children. While it is crucial for healthcare providers and family members to stay up-to-date with their vaccinations, other immunizations are more pertinent for older adults.
Choice D rationale:
Herpes zoster vaccination (shingles vaccine) is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older. Herpes zoster is a painful rash caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox. Older adults are at higher risk of developing shingles, and vaccination can reduce the likelihood of the disease and its complications. Therefore, the nurse should recommend the herpes zoster vaccine to the group of older adults as it aligns with their age and addresses a specific health risk they face.
A school nurse is using the Weber's test to check a child's hearing acuity.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Measure the amount of time the child can hear the sound.
Measuring the amount of time the child can hear the sound is not the correct action when performing Weber's test. Weber's test is used to assess hearing acuity and lateralization. In this test, a vibrating tuning fork is placed in the middle of the patient's forehead, and the patient is asked if the sound is heard equally in both ears or if it is louder in one ear. This helps identify whether there is a conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. The duration of hearing the sound is not relevant to this test.
B. Obtain a tympanogram reading prior to initiating the test.
Obtaining a tympanogram reading is not necessary before initiating Weber's test. Tympanometry assesses the movement of the eardrum in response to changes in air pressure and can help diagnose conditions like middle ear effusion or eustachian tube dysfunction. However, Weber's test focuses on lateralization of sound and does not require tympanogram readings.
C. Place a vibrating tuning fork on the top of the child's head.
Placing a vibrating tuning fork on the top of the child's head is the correct action for performing Weber's test. By doing so, the nurse can assess whether the sound is perceived equally in both ears or if it is lateralized to one ear. If the sound is lateralized, it can provide valuable information about the type of hearing loss the child may have, whether it's conductive or sensorineural.
D. Hold a vibrating tuning fork 1 to 2 cm (0.4 to 0.8 in) from the child's ears.
Holding a vibrating tuning fork 1 to 2 cm (0.4 to 0.8 in) from the child's ears is not the correct technique for Weber's test. Placing the tuning fork directly on the patient's forehead is essential for accurate assessment. Holding it close to the ears can lead to misinterpretation of the test results.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Measuring the amount of time the child can hear the sound is not the correct action when performing Weber's test. Weber's test is used to assess hearing acuity and lateralization. In this test, a vibrating tuning fork is placed in the middle of the patient's forehead, and the patient is asked if the sound is heard equally in both ears or if it is louder in one ear. This helps identify whether there is a conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. The duration of hearing the sound is not relevant to this test.
Choice B rationale:
Obtaining a tympanogram reading is not necessary before initiating Weber's test. Tympanometry assesses the movement of the eardrum in response to changes in air pressure and can help diagnose conditions like middle ear effusion or eustachian tube dysfunction. However, Weber's test focuses on lateralization of sound and does not require tympanogram readings.
Choice C rationale:
Placing a vibrating tuning fork on the top of the child's head is the correct action for performing Weber's test. By doing so, the nurse can assess whether the sound is perceived equally in both ears or if it is lateralized to one ear. If the sound is lateralized, it can provide valuable information about the type of hearing loss the child may have, whether it's conductive or sensorineural.
Choice D rationale:
Holding a vibrating tuning fork 1 to 2 cm (0.4 to 0.8 in) from the child's ears is not the correct technique for Weber's test. Placing the tuning fork directly on the patient's forehead is essential for accurate assessment. Holding it close to the ears can lead to misinterpretation of the test results.
A nurse is caring for a client who is preoperative for cataract removal.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the procedure?
A. "I can expect my eyelids to be bruised after this procedure.”
The statement, "I can expect my eyelids to be bruised after this procedure," indicates an understanding of the common side effects of cataract removal surgery. Bruising around the eyes is a common occurrence due to the manipulation of tissues during the procedure.
B. "I will see dark spots in my vision after this procedure.”
The statement, "I will see dark spots in my vision after this procedure," is incorrect. Dark spots in vision are not a normal or expected outcome of cataract removal surgery. This statement shows a misunderstanding of the procedure.
C. "I will receive general anesthesia for this procedure.”
The statement, "I will receive general anesthesia for this procedure," is incorrect. While anesthesia is administered during the procedure, specifying the type of anesthesia is not crucial for the client's understanding of the surgery itself. The focus should be on the procedure details rather than the type of anesthesia.
D. "I know the provider will replace the lens in my eyes during this procedure.”
The statement, "I know the provider will replace the lens in my eyes during this procedure," indicates a clear understanding of the cataract removal procedure. The main goal of cataract surgery is to remove the cloudy lens and replace it with a clear artificial lens, improving the patient's vision. This statement demonstrates the client's comprehension of the surgery process.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The statement, "I can expect my eyelids to be bruised after this procedure," indicates an understanding of the common side effects of cataract removal surgery. Bruising around the eyes is a common occurrence due to the manipulation of tissues during the procedure.
Choice B rationale:
The statement, "I will see dark spots in my vision after this procedure," is incorrect. Dark spots in vision are not a normal or expected outcome of cataract removal surgery. This statement shows a misunderstanding of the procedure.
Choice C rationale:
The statement, "I will receive general anesthesia for this procedure," is incorrect. While anesthesia is administered during the procedure, specifying the type of anesthesia is not crucial for the client's understanding of the surgery itself. The focus should be on the procedure details rather than the type of anesthesia.
Choice D rationale:
The statement, "I know the provider will replace the lens in my eyes during this procedure," indicates a clear understanding of the cataract removal procedure. The main goal of cataract surgery is to remove the cloudy lens and replace it with a clear artificial lens, improving the patient's vision. This statement demonstrates the client's comprehension of the surgery process.