Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A nurse is preparing to administer clindamycin to a client who states she forgot to report to the provider that she is allergic to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Give the client the prescribed dose of the clindamycin.
Giving the prescribed dose of clindamycin is not appropriate due to the reported penicillin allergy, which increases the risk of an allergic reaction.
B. Obtain a prescription for an alternative antibiotic.
Obtain a prescription for an alternative antibiotic is correct. Given the client's reported allergy to penicillin, which is in the same antibiotic class as clindamycin (both are antibiotics that belong to the beta-lactam group), there is a higher risk of cross-reactivity and potential allergic reaction. Therefore, it's important to avoid administering clindamycin in such cases and seek an alternative antibiotic that does not have a similar chemical structure to penicillin to prevent an allergic reaction.
C. Premeditate the client with epinephrine before administering the antibiotic.
Premeditating the client with epinephrine before administering the antibiotic is not a standard practice in this context. Epinephrine is used to treat severe allergic reactions but is not used as a preventive measure before administering antibiotics.
D. Administer the clindamycin using a desensitization schedule.
Administering the clindamycin using a desensitization schedule might be an option in certain situations under the guidance of an allergist or immunologist, but it's not typically performed by nurses and requires a specific protocol and expertise in managing drug allergies. Obtaining an alternative antibiotic is a more appropriate and immediate action to avoid the risk of an allergic reaction in this scenario.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - RN Pharmacology 2019 Proctored Exam 5. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Giving the prescribed dose of clindamycin is not appropriate due to the reported penicillin allergy, which increases the risk of an allergic reaction.
Choice B Reason:
Obtain a prescription for an alternative antibiotic is correct. Given the client's reported allergy to penicillin, which is in the same antibiotic class as clindamycin (both are antibiotics that belong to the beta-lactam group), there is a higher risk of cross-reactivity and potential allergic reaction. Therefore, it's important to avoid administering clindamycin in such cases and seek an alternative antibiotic that does not have a similar chemical structure to penicillin to prevent an allergic reaction.
Choice C Reason:
Premeditating the client with epinephrine before administering the antibiotic is not a standard practice in this context. Epinephrine is used to treat severe allergic reactions but is not used as a preventive measure before administering antibiotics.
Choice D Reason:
Administering the clindamycin using a desensitization schedule might be an option in certain situations under the guidance of an allergist or immunologist, but it's not typically performed by nurses and requires a specific protocol and expertise in managing drug allergies. Obtaining an alternative antibiotic is a more appropriate and immediate action to avoid the risk of an allergic reaction in this scenario.
Similar Questions
A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for ferrous gluconate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I should notify my provider if my stools turn black."
"I should notify my provider if my stools turn black." This is the appropriate statement. Ferrous gluconate is an iron supplement commonly prescribed to treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia. When taking iron supplements, it's common for stools to become darker or even black in color. This change in stool color is due to the iron and is generally harmless. However, it's essential to inform the healthcare provider about this change because it can also indicate bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, which requires evaluation.
B. 1 should take an antacid with this medication to prevent stomach upset."
Taking an antacid with iron supplements can interfere with iron absorption. Antacids may decrease the absorption of iron in the stomach, so it's not recommended to take them together.
C. should stay upright for at least 15 minutes after taking this medication."
While staying upright after taking certain medications can help prevent esophageal irritation or reflux, it's not specifically required with ferrous gluconate.
D. should take this medication with 8 ounces of milk."
Taking iron supplements with milk is also not recommended as milk and calcium-containing products can inhibit the absorption of iron. It's generally best to take iron supplements on an empty stomach or with vitamin C to enhance absorption, unless otherwise instructed by the healthcare provider.
Full Explanation
Choice A Reason:
"I should notify my provider if my stools turn black." This is the appropriate statement. Ferrous gluconate is an iron supplement commonly prescribed to treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia. When taking iron supplements, it's common for stools to become darker or even black in color. This change in stool color is due to the iron and is generally harmless. However, it's essential to inform the healthcare provider about this change because it can also indicate bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, which requires evaluation.
Choice B Reason:
Taking an antacid with iron supplements can interfere with iron absorption. Antacids may decrease the absorption of iron in the stomach, so it's not recommended to take them together.
Choice C Reason:
While staying upright after taking certain medications can help prevent esophageal irritation or reflux, it's not specifically required with ferrous gluconate.
Choice D Reason:
Taking iron supplements with milk is also not recommended as milk and calcium-containing products can inhibit the absorption of iron. It's generally best to take iron supplements on an empty stomach or with vitamin C to enhance absorption, unless otherwise instructed by the healthcare provider.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking lithium and reports starting a new exercise program. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
A. Hypomagnesemia
Hypomagnesemia is incorrect. Lithium therapy itself is not a direct cause of hypomagnesemia. While exercise can affect magnesium levels to some extent, it's not a primary electrolyte imbalance that is typically associated with lithium use or considered a significant concern specifically due to lithium.
B. Hypocalcemia
Hypocalcemia is incorrect. Similarly, lithium therapy is not a direct cause of hypocalcemia. Exercise can affect calcium metabolism, but it's not a primary electrolyte imbalance typically associated with lithium use or considered a significant concern specifically due to lithium. When a client taking lithium begins a new exercise program, the nurse should primarily assess for the risk of:
C. Hyponatremia
Hyponatremia is correct. Lithium can affect the body's regulation of sodium, and excessive sweating due to increased exercise can lead to sodium loss. This combination can potentially contribute to the development of hyponatremia (low sodium levels). Therefore, when a client on lithium starts a new exercise regimen that may induce sweating, monitoring for signs of hyponatremia becomes crucial. Symptoms of hyponatremia can include confusion, headaches, nausea, and in severe cases, seizures or coma.
D. Hypokalemia
Hypokalemia is incorrect. Lithium itself does not commonly cause hypokalemia. Exercise can lead to potassium loss through sweating, but hypokalemia is not the primary electrolyte imbalance typically associated with lithium use or considered a significant concern specifically due to lithium.
Full Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Hypomagnesemia is incorrect. Lithium therapy itself is not a direct cause of hypomagnesemia. While exercise can affect magnesium levels to some extent, it's not a primary electrolyte imbalance that is typically associated with lithium use or considered a significant concern specifically due to lithium.
Choice B Reason:
Hypocalcemia is incorrect. Similarly, lithium therapy is not a direct cause of hypocalcemia. Exercise can affect calcium metabolism, but it's not a primary electrolyte imbalance typically associated with lithium use or considered a significant concern specifically due to lithium.
When a client taking lithium begins a new exercise program, the nurse should primarily assess for the risk of:
Choice C Reason:
Hyponatremia is correct. Lithium can affect the body's regulation of sodium, and excessive sweating due to increased exercise can lead to sodium loss. This combination can potentially contribute to the development of hyponatremia (low sodium levels). Therefore, when a client on lithium starts a new exercise regimen that may induce sweating, monitoring for signs of hyponatremia becomes crucial. Symptoms of hyponatremia can include confusion, headaches, nausea, and in severe cases, seizures or coma.
Choice D Reason:
Hypokalemia is incorrect. Lithium itself does not commonly cause hypokalemia. Exercise can lead to potassium loss through sweating, but hypokalemia is not the primary electrolyte imbalance typically associated with lithium use or considered a significant concern specifically due to lithium.
A nurse is mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe prior to administering it to a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Withdraw the NPH insulin from the vial.
Withdrawing the NPH insulin from the vial should come after injecting air into the NPH vial.
B. Inject air into the regular insulin vial.
Injecting air into the regular insulin vial should occur after withdrawing the NPH insulin from its vial.
C. Inject air into the NPH vial.
Inject air into the NPH vial is correct. The sequence for mixing regular insulin (clear) and NPH insulin (cloudy) in the same syringe typically involves injecting air into the NPH (cloudy) insulin vial first. This step prevents excess pressure buildup when withdrawing the solution, making it easier to draw the correct amount of NPH insulin into the syringe.
D. Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial.
Withdrawing the regular insulin from the vial should occur after withdrawing the correct amount of NPH insulin into the syringe.
Full Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Withdrawing the NPH insulin from the vial should come after injecting air into the NPH vial.
Choice B Reason:
Injecting air into the regular insulin vial should occur after withdrawing the NPH insulin from its vial.
Choice C Reason:
Inject air into the NPH vial is correct. The sequence for mixing regular insulin (clear) and NPH insulin (cloudy) in the same syringe typically involves injecting air into the NPH (cloudy) insulin vial first. This step prevents excess pressure buildup when withdrawing the solution, making it easier to draw the correct amount of NPH insulin into the syringe.
Choice D Reason:
Withdrawing the regular insulin from the vial should occur after withdrawing the correct amount of NPH insulin into the syringe.