Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a postpartum client about caring for her 5-day-old male newborn at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse make to the client?
A. "Swaddle your baby tightly with his legs extended before laying him down to sleep.".
Swaddling the baby tightly with his legs extended before laying him down to sleep is not a recommended practice, as it can increase the risk of hip dysplasia. Instead, the baby should be placed on their back in a safe sleep environment.
B. "Notify your baby's pediatrician if he urinates less than six times a day.".
This statement is correct because monitoring the baby's urinary output is essential in ensuring adequate hydration and proper kidney function. Less than six wet diapers a day could be a sign of dehydration and should be promptly reported to the pediatrician.
C. "Retract the foreskin to clean your baby's penis during each bath.".
It is not necessary to retract the foreskin to clean the baby's penis during each bath. The foreskin should be left alone and not forcibly retracted until it naturally loosens, usually around the age of 3 to 5 years.
D. "Place triple antibiotic ointment on your baby's umbilical cord twice per day."
Applying triple antibiotic ointment on the baby's umbilical cord is not recommended, as the standard practice is to keep the umbilical cord clean and dry. This helps it to fall off naturally within a week or two after birth, reducing the risk of infection.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Maternal Newborn 2019 NGN Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Swaddling the baby tightly with his legs extended before laying him down to sleep is not a recommended practice, as it can increase the risk of hip dysplasia. Instead, the baby should be placed on their back in a safe sleep environment.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is correct because monitoring the baby's urinary output is essential in ensuring adequate hydration and proper kidney function. Less than six wet diapers a day could be a sign of dehydration and should be promptly reported to the pediatrician.
Choice C rationale:
It is not necessary to retract the foreskin to clean the baby's penis during each bath. The foreskin should be left alone and not forcibly retracted until it naturally loosens, usually around the age of 3 to 5 years.
Choice D rationale:
Applying triple antibiotic ointment on the baby's umbilical cord is not recommended, as the standard practice is to keep the umbilical cord clean and dry. This helps it to fall off naturally within a week or two after birth, reducing the risk of infection.
Similar Questions
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who had a vaginal delivery 3 hr ago. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for postpartum haemorrhage?(Select all that apply.)
A. Newborn weight 2.948 kg (6 lb 8 oz).
Newborn weight of 2.948 kg (6 lb 8 oz) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Newborn weight is not directly related to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage in the mother.
B. History of uterine atony.
History of uterine atony places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage and refers to the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding.
C. Labor induction with oxytocin.
Labor induction with oxytocin places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is commonly used to induce labor or augment contractions, but it can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
D. History of human papillomavirus.
History of human papillomavirus (HPV) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection and does not have a direct connection to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Newborn weight of 2.948 kg (6 lb 8 oz) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Newborn weight is not directly related to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage in the mother.
Choice B rationale:
History of uterine atony places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage and refers to the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding.
Choice C rationale:
Labor induction with oxytocin places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is commonly used to induce labor or augment contractions, but it can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale:
History of human papillomavirus (HPV) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection and does not have a direct connection to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale:
Vacuum-assisted delivery places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Vacuum assisted delivery involves using a vacuum device to assist in the baby's delivery, and it can cause trauma to the birth canal, leading to increased bleeding risk in the mother.
A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth and notes a large amount of mucus in the newborn's mouth and nose. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow when performing suction with a bulb syringe.
A. Assess the newborn for reflex bradycardia.
B. Use the bulb syringe to suction the newborn's nose.
C. Place the bulb syringe in the newborn's mouth.
D. Compress the bulb syringe.
Full Explanation
A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%.
A client with placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36% should be monitored closely due to the risk of bleeding, but it is not an immediate priority compared to the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and a low sodium level.
B. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by excessive vomiting, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to correct the electrolyte disturbance and prevent further complications.
C. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%.
A client with diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8% is within a normal range, indicating good glycemic control. This client's condition can be managed on an outpatient basis and does not require urgent assessment compared to the others.
D. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL.
A client with preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL should be closely monitored, but it is not the priority over the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and severe electrolyte imbalance.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client with placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36% should be monitored closely due to the risk of bleeding, but it is not an immediate priority compared to the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and a low sodium level.
Choice B rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by excessive vomiting, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to correct the electrolyte disturbance and prevent further complications.
Choice C rationale:
A client with diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8% is within a normal range, indicating good glycemic control. This client's condition can be managed on an outpatient basis and does not require urgent assessment compared to the others.
Choice D rationale:
A client with preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL should be closely monitored, but it is not the priority over the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and severe electrolyte imbalance.