Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
Which of the following findings is a contraindication for administration of this medication?
A. Preeclampsia.
Preeclampsia is not a contraindication for the administration of misoprostol for induction of labor. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin E1 analog used for cervical ripening and induction of labor. It is not contraindicated in patients with preeclampsia. However, its use should be carefully monitored in patients with hypertensive disorders of pregnancy due to the potential impact on blood pressure.
B. Transverse fetal lie.
Transverse fetal lie is a contraindication for the administration of misoprostol for induction of labor. Misoprostol should not be used when the baby is in a transverse position because it can lead to complications during delivery. Induction methods should be chosen carefully based on the fetal presentation to ensure a safe delivery process.
C. Intrauterine growth restriction.
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is not a contraindication for the administration of misoprostol for induction of labor. IUGR refers to a condition where a fetus does not grow at the expected rate inside the uterus. While the cause of IUGR needs to be addressed, misoprostol itself is not contraindicated in these cases. However, the healthcare provider should assess the overall fetal well-being before deciding on the induction method.
D. Postterm pregnancy.
Postterm pregnancy is not a contraindication for the administration of misoprostol for induction of labor. In postterm pregnancies, where the pregnancy has extended beyond 42 weeks, healthcare providers may consider inducing labor to prevent complications associated with prolonged gestation. Misoprostol is one of the options for induction in postterm pregnancies, although the choice of induction method may vary based on various factors.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - RN Comprehensive Online Practice 2019 B with NGN Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Preeclampsia is not a contraindication for the administration of misoprostol for induction of labor. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin E1 analog used for cervical ripening and induction of labor. It is not contraindicated in patients with preeclampsia. However, its use should be carefully monitored in patients with hypertensive disorders of pregnancy due to the potential impact on blood pressure.
Choice B rationale:
Transverse fetal lie is a contraindication for the administration of misoprostol for induction of labor. Misoprostol should not be used when the baby is in a transverse position because it can lead to complications during delivery. Induction methods should be chosen carefully based on the fetal presentation to ensure a safe delivery process.
Choice C rationale:
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is not a contraindication for the administration of misoprostol for induction of labor. IUGR refers to a condition where a fetus does not grow at the expected rate inside the uterus. While the cause of IUGR needs to be addressed, misoprostol itself is not contraindicated in these cases. However, the healthcare provider should assess the overall fetal well-being before deciding on the induction method.
Choice D rationale:
Postterm pregnancy is not a contraindication for the administration of misoprostol for induction of labor. In postterm pregnancies, where the pregnancy has extended beyond 42 weeks, healthcare providers may consider inducing labor to prevent complications associated with prolonged gestation. Misoprostol is one of the options for induction in postterm pregnancies, although the choice of induction method may vary based on various factors.
Similar Questions
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about advance directives.
Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "The provider will choose a client's health care surrogate.”
The provider does not choose a client's healthcare surrogate. Advance directives, including the appointment of a healthcare surrogate, allow individuals to make their own decisions about their medical treatment if they become unable to communicate their wishes. Clients have the right to designate their healthcare surrogate based on their preferences and values. This statement is incorrect as it misrepresents the purpose of advance directives.
B. "A health care surrogate must be a family member.”
A healthcare surrogate does not need to be a family member. The choice of a healthcare surrogate is a personal decision made by the individual. It can be a family member, friend, or any other person whom the individual trusts to make medical decisions on their behalf. There is no requirement that the surrogate must be a family member.
C. "The provider can go against the client's wishes regarding advance directives.”
The provider cannot go against the client's wishes regarding advance directives. Advance directives are legally binding documents that outline the individual's preferences for medical treatment, including decisions to withhold or withdraw life-sustaining interventions. Healthcare providers are ethically and legally obligated to respect and follow the directives outlined by the client. Going against the client's wishes would be a violation of their autonomy and legal rights.
D. "The client can resume control of health care after a temporary loss of competency.”
The client can resume control of healthcare decisions after a temporary loss of competency if specified in the advance directives. Advance directives often include provisions stating that the individual's decision-making capacity should be
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The provider does not choose a client's healthcare surrogate. Advance directives, including the appointment of a healthcare surrogate, allow individuals to make their own decisions about their medical treatment if they become unable to communicate their wishes. Clients have the right to designate their healthcare surrogate based on their preferences and values. This statement is incorrect as it misrepresents the purpose of advance directives.
Choice B rationale:
A healthcare surrogate does not need to be a family member. The choice of a healthcare surrogate is a personal decision made by the individual. It can be a family member, friend, or any other person whom the individual trusts to make medical decisions on their behalf. There is no requirement that the surrogate must be a family member.
Choice C rationale:
The provider cannot go against the client's wishes regarding advance directives. Advance directives are legally binding documents that outline the individual's preferences for medical treatment, including decisions to withhold or withdraw life-sustaining interventions. Healthcare providers are ethically and legally obligated to respect and follow the directives outlined by the client. Going against the client's wishes would be a violation of their autonomy and legal rights.
Choice D rationale:
The client can resume control of healthcare decisions after a temporary loss of competency if specified in the advance directives. Advance directives often include provisions stating that the individual's decision-making capacity should be
A community health nurse is planning an educational program on Lyme disease for the general public.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the program?
A. "Use a product with DEET on your skin and clothes when you are walking in a wooded area.”
The nurse should include the statement, "Use a product with DEET on your skin and clothes when you are walking in a wooded area," in the educational program on Lyme disease. DEET is a widely used insect repellent effective against ticks. It is recommended to prevent tick bites in wooded and grassy areas. The rationale behind this choice is to educate the public about practical measures to reduce the risk of Lyme disease. DEET repels ticks, reducing the chances of tick attachment and, consequently, the transmission of Lyme disease.
B. "Symptoms of Lyme disease appear 2 days after being bitten by an infected tick.”
The statement, "Symptoms of Lyme disease appear 2 days after being bitten by an infected tick," is incorrect. The incubation period for Lyme disease can vary from 3 to 30 days after the tick bite. Symptoms usually appear within 3 to 14 days but can take longer to manifest. Providing inaccurate information can lead to misunderstanding and inadequate preventive measures.
C. "Remove embedded ticks by squeezing the body with tweezers.”
The statement, "Remove embedded ticks by squeezing the body with tweezers," is incorrect. Improper removal of ticks, such as squeezing the body, can lead to the injection of tick fluids into the host, increasing the risk of disease transmission. The correct method for tick removal is to use fine-tipped tweezers to grasp the tick as close to the skin's surface as possible and pull upward with steady, even pressure. This helps ensure the tick is removed entirely and reduces the risk of infection.
D. "If bitten by a tick, testing for Lyme disease should occur within 2 weeks.”
The statement, "If bitten by a tick, testing for Lyme disease should occur within 2 weeks," is incorrect. Testing for Lyme disease immediately after a tick bite is not recommended because it takes time for the body to produce antibodies detectable by the tests. Testing too early can yield false-negative results. Healthcare providers may recommend testing if symptoms develop, but waiting for a few weeks after the bite increases the accuracy of the test results.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should include the statement, "Use a product with DEET on your skin and clothes when you are walking in a wooded area," in the educational program on Lyme disease. DEET is a widely used insect repellent effective against ticks. It is recommended to prevent tick bites in wooded and grassy areas. The rationale behind this choice is to educate the public about practical measures to reduce the risk of Lyme disease. DEET repels ticks, reducing the chances of tick attachment and, consequently, the transmission of Lyme disease.
Choice B rationale:
The statement, "Symptoms of Lyme disease appear 2 days after being bitten by an infected tick," is incorrect. The incubation period for Lyme disease can vary from 3 to 30 days after the tick bite. Symptoms usually appear within 3 to 14 days but can take longer to manifest. Providing inaccurate information can lead to misunderstanding and inadequate preventive measures.
Choice C rationale:
The statement, "Remove embedded ticks by squeezing the body with tweezers," is incorrect. Improper removal of ticks, such as squeezing the body, can lead to the injection of tick fluids into the host, increasing the risk of disease transmission. The correct method for tick removal is to use fine-tipped tweezers to grasp the tick as close to the skin's surface as possible and pull upward with steady, even pressure. This helps ensure the tick is removed entirely and reduces the risk of infection.
Choice D rationale:
The statement, "If bitten by a tick, testing for Lyme disease should occur within 2 weeks," is incorrect. Testing for Lyme disease immediately after a tick bite is not recommended because it takes time for the body to produce antibodies detectable by the tests. Testing too early can yield false-negative results. Healthcare providers may recommend testing if symptoms develop, but waiting for a few weeks after the bite increases the accuracy of the test results.
A nurse is caring for a female client who requires bed rest and reports difficulty urinating into a bedpan.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Turn on the faucets in the client's sink.
Turning on the faucets in the client's sink is not a recommended action for promoting urination. While the sound of running water can sometimes trigger the need to urinate, it may not be effective for every individual. Moreover, this action may not be practical or feasible in all healthcare settings.
B. Tell the client to gently stroke her lower abdomen.
Instructing the client to gently stroke her lower abdomen is the appropriate action in this situation. Gentle stroking or tapping on the lower abdomen can stimulate the bladder reflex and promote urination. This technique can help clients who have difficulty voiding, especially when using a bedpan. It encourages relaxation of the pelvic muscles, making it easier for the client to urinate.
C. Instruct the client to lean slightly backward.
Instructing the client to lean slightly backward is not an appropriate action for promoting urination. Leaning backward can put pressure on the bladder, which may make it more challenging for the client to urinate. Encouraging relaxation and using techniques like gentle abdominal stroking are more effective in this situation.
D. Pour cool water over the client's perineum.
Pouring cool water over the client's perineum is not a recommended action for promoting urination. While some individuals find warm water soothing and relaxing, pouring cold water may cause discomfort and stress, making it even more difficult for the client to urinate. Gentle stimulation and relaxation techniques are generally more effective.
Full Explanation
Choice B rationale:
Instructing the client to gently stroke her lower abdomen is the appropriate action in this situation. Gentle stroking or tapping on the lower abdomen can stimulate the bladder reflex and promote urination. This technique can help clients who have difficulty voiding, especially when using a bedpan. It encourages relaxation of the pelvic muscles, making it easier for the client to urinate.
Choice A rationale:
Turning on the faucets in the client's sink is not a recommended action for promoting urination. While the sound of running water can sometimes trigger the need to urinate, it may not be effective for every individual. Moreover, this action may not be practical or feasible in all healthcare settings.
Choice C rationale:
Instructing the client to lean slightly backward is not an appropriate action for promoting urination. Leaning backward can put pressure on the bladder, which may make it more challenging for the client to urinate. Encouraging relaxation and using techniques like gentle abdominal stroking are more effective in this situation.
Choice D rationale:
Pouring cool water over the client's perineum is not a recommended action for promoting urination. While some individuals find warm water soothing and relaxing, pouring cold water may cause discomfort and stress, making it even more difficult for the client to urinate. Gentle stimulation and relaxation techniques are generally more effective.