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A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for a bilateral tubal ligation.

Which of the following findings is a contraindication for this procedure?

A. The client has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation.It may increase the risk of complications from the surgery, such as infection or adhesions, but it does not prevent the procedure from being performed.

B. The client has a positive pregnancy test result

The client has a positive pregnancy test result. This is a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation because the procedure is a permanent form of contraception and should not be performed on a pregnant woman. The client should be counseled about other options for birth control or termination of pregnancy.

C. The client has a family history of breast cancer

A family history of breast cancer is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation.It may affect the client’s decision to undergo the procedure, as some studies have suggested that tubal ligation may reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, which is associated with breast cancer.

D. The client has a history of endometriosis

A history of endometriosis is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation. It may cause pelvic pain or infertility, but it does not affect the effectiveness or safety of the procedure.In fact, some studies have shown that tubal ligation may improve the symptoms of endometriosis by reducing retrograde menstruation.

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Full Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. The client has a positive pregnancy test result.

This is a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation because the procedure is a permanent form of contraception and should not be performed on a pregnant woman.

The client should be counseled about other options for birth control or termination of pregnancy.

Choice A is wrong because a history of pelvic inflammatory disease is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation. It may increase the risk of complications from the surgery, such as infection or adhesions, but it does not prevent the procedure from being performed.

Choice C is wrong because a family history of breast cancer is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation. It may affect the client’s decision to undergo the procedure, as some studies have suggested that tubal ligation may reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, which is associated with breast cancer.

However, this is not a medical reason to avoid the surgery.

Choice D is wrong because a history of endometriosis is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation.

It may cause pelvic pain or infertility, but it does not affect the effectiveness or safety of the procedure. In fact, some studies have shown that tubal ligation may improve the symptoms of endometriosis by reducing retrograde menstruation.


Similar Questions

QUESTION

A nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client who is undergoing a transcervical sterilization procedure.

Which of the following information should the nurse include?

A. “The procedure involves inserting flexible agents into your fallopian tubes.”.

These agents cause tissue to grow around them and block the tubes, preventing pregnancy.

B. “The procedure will be done under general anesthesia in an operating room.”.

The procedure does not require general anesthesia or an operating room.It can be done in an outpatient facility with local anesthesia.

C. “The procedure will make you sterile immediately after it is done.”.

The procedure does not make you sterile immediately after it is done. It takes about 3 months for the tissue to grow and occlude the tubes.You need to use another form of contraception during this time and have a test to confirm the tubal blockage.

D. “The procedure will affect your hormone levels and menstrual cycle.”.

The procedure does not affect your hormone levels or menstrual cycle.It only blocks the fallopian tubes, not the ovaries or uterus.

Full Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. The procedure involves inserting flexible agents into your fallopian tubes. These agents cause tissue to grow around them and block the tubes, preventing pregnancy.

Choice B is wrong because the procedure does not require general anesthesia or an operating room. It can be done in an outpatient facility with local anesthesia.

Choice C is wrong because the procedure does not make you sterile immediately after it is done.

It takes about 3 months for the tissue to grow and occlude the tubes. You need to use another form of contraception during this time and have a test to confirm the tubal blockage.

Choice D is wrong because the procedure does not affect your hormone levels or menstrual cycle. It only blocks the fallopian tubes, not the ovaries or uterus.

QUESTION

A nurse is counseling a client who had a vasectomy 6 weeks ago and wants to know if he is sterile yet.

Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

A. “You need to have a sperm count test to confirm your sterility.”.

A sperm count test is a semen analysis that measures the number of sperm in the ejaculate. It is the only way to verify that a vasectomy has been successful and that the man is sterile.A man is considered sterile when his sperm count is zero or below 100,000 non-motile sperm per sample.

B. “You need to wait for at least 20 more ejaculations before you are sterile.”.

The number of ejaculations does not guarantee sterility.Some sperm may still be present in the severed vas deferens for months after a vasectomy.

C. “You need to use another form of contraception for at least 3 more months.”.

The duration of contraception use after a vasectomy depends on the sperm count test results, not on a fixed time period.It may take more or less than 3 months for a man to become sterile after a vasectomy.

D. “You need to have a repeat vasectomy to ensure your sterility.”.

A repeat vasectomy is unnecessary and ineffective to ensure sterility.A vasectomy is a permanent birth control method that rarely fails or reverses.

Full Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. “You need to have a sperm count test to confirm your sterility.”

A sperm count test is a semen analysis that measures the number of sperm in the ejaculate.

It is the only way to verify that a vasectomy has been successful and that the man is sterile. A man is considered sterile when his sperm count is zero or below 100,000 non-motile sperm per sample.

Choice B is wrong because the number of ejaculations does not guarantee sterility. Some sperm may still be present in the severed vas deferens for months after a vasectomy.

Choice C is wrong because the duration of contraception use after a vasectomy depends on the sperm count test results, not on a fixed time period. It may take more or less than 3 months for a man to become sterile after a vasectomy.

Choice D is wrong because a repeat vasectomy is unnecessary and ineffective to ensure sterility. A vasectomy is a permanent birth control method that rarely fails or reverses.

QUESTION

A nurse is caring for a client who requests information about female sterilization (bilateral tubal ligation).

Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate? (Select all that apply.).

A. “This method provides protection against sexually transmitted infections.”.

BTL does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). People who have BTL should still use condoms to prevent STIs.

B. “This method can be performed within 24 hr following childbirth.”.

Bilateral tubal ligation (BTL) is a permanent form of contraception that involves cutting, tying or blocking the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy. It can be performed within 24 hours following childbirth and it is immediately effective.

C. “This method can increase your risk for an ectopic pregnancy.”.

BTL does not increase the risk for an ectopic pregnancy. An ectopic pregnancy is when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. BTL prevents fertilization by blocking the passage of eggs and sperm.

D. “This method requires abdominal surgery with general anesthesia.”.

BTL does not require abdominal surgery with general anesthesia. BTL can be done using different methods, such as laparoscopy, minilaparotomy, or hysteroscopy. These methods use small incisions or no incisions at all and can be done with local or regional anesthesia.

E. “This method is immediately effective.”.

Bilateral tubal ligation (BTL) is a permanent form of contraception that involves cutting, tying or blocking the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy. It can be performed within 24 hours following childbirth and it is immediately effective.

Full Explanation

The correct answer is choice B and E. Bilateral tubal ligation (BTL) is a permanent form of contraception that involves cutting, tying or blocking the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy. It can be performed within 24 hours following childbirth and it is immediately effective.

Choice A is wrong because BTL does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

People who have BTL should still use condoms to prevent STIs.

Choice C is wrong because BTL does not increase the risk for an ectopic pregnancy.

An ectopic pregnancy is when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.

BTL prevents fertilization by blocking the passage of eggs and sperm.

Choice D is wrong because BTL does not require abdominal surgery with general anesthesia.

BTL can be done using different methods, such as laparoscopy, minilaparotomy, or hysteroscopy.

These methods use small incisions or no incisions at all and can be done with local or regional anesthesia.