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A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread.

Peanut butter and wheat bread contain high levels of phenylalanine, which should be avoided in clients with phenylketonuria.  

B. A sliced apple and red grapes.

A sliced apple and red grapes are low in phenylalanine and are safe choices for a client with phenylketonuria.  

C. A chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk.

Chocolate, cookies, and milk contain phenylalanine, making them unsuitable for the client.  

D. A scrambled egg with cheddar cheese.

Eggs and cheese are high in phenylalanine and should be restricted in the diet.        

This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now


Full Explanation

A. Peanut butter and wheat bread contain high levels of phenylalanine, which should be avoided in clients with phenylketonuria.
B. A sliced apple and red grapes are low in phenylalanine and are safe choices for a client with phenylketonuria.
C. Chocolate, cookies, and milk contain phenylalanine, making them unsuitable for the client.
D. Eggs and cheese are high in phenylalanine and should be restricted in the diet.

 

 

 

 


Similar Questions

QUESTION

A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 48 hr old and has a maternal history of methadone use during pregnancy. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an indication of neonatal abstinence syndrome?

A. Hyporeactivity.

Hyporeactivity, or reduced responsiveness to stimuli, is not typically associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) NAS is characterized by increased irritability and not reduced activity.

B. Excessive high-pitched cry.

An excessive high-pitched cry is a common manifestation of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Infants exposed to substances like methadone during pregnancy may experience heightened sensitivity and exhibit a high-pitched cry as a sign of withdrawal.

C. Acrocyanosis.

Acrocyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the hands and feet, is not a specific indicator of neonatal abstinence syndrome. It is a common finding in newborns and often resolves on its own.

D. Respiratory rate of 50/min.

A respiratory rate of 50/min is within the normal range for a newborn. It is not an indication of neonatal abstinence syndrome.

Full Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Hyporeactivity, or reduced responsiveness to stimuli, is not typically associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) NAS is characterized by increased irritability and not reduced activity.

Choice B rationale:

An excessive high-pitched cry is a common manifestation of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Infants exposed to substances like methadone during pregnancy may experience heightened sensitivity and exhibit a high-pitched cry as a sign of withdrawal.

Choice C rationale:

Acrocyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the hands and feet, is not a specific indicator of neonatal abstinence syndrome. It is a common finding in newborns and often resolves on its own.

Choice D rationale:

A respiratory rate of 50/min is within the normal range for a newborn. It is not an indication of neonatal abstinence syndrome.

QUESTION

A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and has a maternal history of methadone use during pregnancy. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an indication of neonatal abstinence syndrome?

A. Hyporeactivity.

Hyporeactivity is not typically associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) NAS is characterized by increased irritability and signs of withdrawal, which are opposite to a hypo- reactive state.

B. Excessive high-pitched cry.

An excessive high-pitched cry is a hallmark sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Babies exposed to drugs like methadone during pregnancy can experience withdrawal symptoms, including a distinct high-pitched cry.

C. Acrocyanosis.

Acrocyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the extremities, is a common finding in newborns and is not specific to NAS. It is caused by immature peripheral circulation and usually resolves on its own.

D. Respiratory rate of 50/min.

A respiratory rate of 50/min is within the normal range for a newborn and is not a sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome. NAS symptoms are related to drug withdrawal and not respiratory issues.

Full Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Hyporeactivity is not typically associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) NAS is characterized by increased irritability and signs of withdrawal, which are opposite to a hypo- reactive state.

Choice B rationale:

An excessive high-pitched cry is a hallmark sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Babies exposed to drugs like methadone during pregnancy can experience withdrawal symptoms, including a distinct high-pitched cry.

Choice C rationale:

Acrocyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the extremities, is a common finding in newborns and is not specific to NAS. It is caused by immature peripheral circulation and usually resolves on its own.

Choice D rationale:

A respiratory rate of 50/min is within the normal range for a newborn and is not a sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome. NAS symptoms are related to drug withdrawal and not respiratory issues.

QUESTION

A nurse is admitting a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding due to placenta previa. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

A. Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR.

Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR. For a client with placenta previa, continuous fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring is essential to assess the baby's well-being due to the risk of fetal distress from reduced oxygen supply.  Continuous FHR monitoring is a standard care practice for clients with placenta previa to promptly detect any signs of fetal distress and intervene as necessary.

B. Administer a dose of betamethasone.

Betamethasone is typically administered to enhance fetal lung maturity before 34 weeks of gestation, not for placenta previa. Its use at 35 weeks is less common unless there's a risk of preterm birth within 7 days and the patient hasn't received a previous course.  

C. Check the cervix for dilation every 8 hours.

Checking the cervix can induce bleeding and is contraindicated in placenta previa because it may disturb the placental site and exacerbate bleeding.

D. Request that the provider prescribe misoprostol PRN.

Misoprostol is used for labor induction or to treat postpartum hemorrhage. It is not indicated for placenta previa management and can cause uterine contractions leading to increased bleeding.

Full Explanation

The correct answer is A. Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR. For a client with placenta previa, continuous fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring is essential to assess the baby's well-being due to the risk of fetal distress from reduced oxygen supply

Choice A reason:

Continuous FHR monitoring is a standard care practice for clients with placenta previa to promptly detect any signs of fetal distress and intervene as necessary.

Choice B reason:

Betamethasone is typically administered to enhance fetal lung maturity before 34 weeks of gestation, not for placenta previa. Its use at 35 weeks is less common unless there's a risk of preterm birth within 7 days and the patient hasn't received a previous course.

Choice C reason:

Checking the cervix can induce bleeding and is contraindicated in placenta previa because it may disturb the placental site and exacerbate bleeding.

Choice D reason:

Misoprostol is used for labor induction or to treat postpartum hemorrhage. It is not indicated for placenta previa management and can cause uterine contractions leading to increased bleeding.