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NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
Interpret and spell the abbreviation: tid
Enter the word only.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Med Surg Exam Antelope Valley College Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Correct answer is three times a day.
Similar Questions
The nurse is caring for a client who experienced a severe headache. When the prescribed dose of analgesics did not cause relief, the client took double the dosage 1 hour later. The nurse should assess the client for what adverse effect?
A. An allergic reaction
An allergic reaction is a possible response to medication, but it is not directly related to doubling the dosage.
B. Anaphylactic reaction
Anaphylactic reaction is a severe and rapid allergic response; while possible, it is not the most likely consequence of an overdose in this context.
C. Poisoning
Poisoning is a likely concern when a client takes double the prescribed dosage of analgesics, especially if the medication has a narrow therapeutic index or is known to cause toxicity at high doses.
D. Sedative effects
Sedative effects could occur depending on the analgesic used, but poisoning is a more pressing concern following an overdose.
Full Explanation
A. An allergic reaction is a possible response to medication, but it is not directly related to doubling the dosage.
B. Anaphylactic reaction is a severe and rapid allergic response; while possible, it is not the most likely consequence of an overdose in this context.
C. Poisoning is a likely concern when a client takes double the prescribed dosage of analgesics, especially if the medication has a narrow therapeutic index or is known to cause toxicity at high doses.
D. Sedative effects could occur depending on the analgesic used, but poisoning is a more pressing concern following an overdose.
When caring for a patient with angina, the nurse instructs the patient to place the nitroglycerin tablet between the cheek and the gums. Which route of administration is the nurse referring to?
A. Sublingual
Sublingual administration involves placing the tablet under the tongue, not between the cheek and gums.
B. Transdermal
Transdermal refers to medication delivered through the skin via a patch, which is not applicable in this scenario.
C. Buccal
Buccal administration involves placing the medication between the cheek and gums, allowing it to dissolve and be absorbed through the oral mucosa.
D. Translingual
Translingual refers to administering a medication via the tongue, which is not the route being used in this case.
Full Explanation
A. Sublingual administration involves placing the tablet under the tongue, not between the cheek and gums.
B. Transdermal refers to medication delivered through the skin via a patch, which is not applicable in this scenario.
C. Buccal administration involves placing the medication between the cheek and gums, allowing it to dissolve and be absorbed through the oral mucosa.
D. Translingual refers to administering a medication via the tongue, which is not the route being used in this case.
A client with hypertension has had their ACE inhibitor discontinued and an angiotensin II receptor blocker prescribed. What factor may have contributed to this change in medication?
A. Rebound hypertension
Rebound hypertension can occur if antihypertensive medications are abruptly stopped, but it is not a direct reason for switching from an ACE inhibitor to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
B. Persistent cough
A persistent cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to the accumulation of bradykinin. If the client experienced this side effect, it would likely prompt the healthcare provider to switch to an angiotensin II receptor blocker, which does not typically cause this issue.
C. Transient ischemic attack
A transient ischemic attack (TIA) would require urgent intervention but is not a reason for changing from an ACE inhibitor to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
D. Non-adherence to ACE inhibitor treatment
Non-adherence to ACE inhibitor treatment may lead to ineffective blood pressure control but would not directly justify a switch to a different class of medication.
Full Explanation
A. Rebound hypertension can occur if antihypertensive medications are abruptly stopped, but it is not a direct reason for switching from an ACE inhibitor to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
B. A persistent cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to the accumulation of bradykinin. If the client experienced this side effect, it would likely prompt the healthcare provider to switch to an angiotensin II receptor blocker, which does not typically cause this issue.
C. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) would require urgent intervention but is not a reason for changing from an ACE inhibitor to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
D. Non-adherence to ACE inhibitor treatment may lead to ineffective blood pressure control but would not directly justify a switch to a different class of medication.