Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
The nurse is caring for a client who reports taking methotrexate, a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) for rheumatoid arthritis. What finding, if experienced by the client, would the nurse suspect is a complication of the medication?
A. Nausea
Methotrexate, a DMARD, inhibits folate metabolism, suppressing immune activity in rheumatoid arthritis. A common side effect is nausea, resulting from gastrointestinal mucosal irritation due to folate antagonism. This affects rapidly dividing cells in the gut, making nausea a recognized complication requiring monitoring or antiemetic support.
B. Joint swelling
Joint swelling is a symptom of active rheumatoid arthritis, not a complication of methotrexate. Methotrexate reduces joint inflammation by inhibiting immune responses. Persistent swelling suggests inadequate disease control, not a drug side effect, making this finding unrelated to methotrexate complications.
C. Generalized aching and stiffness
Generalized aching and stiffness are symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis itself, not methotrexate complications. Methotrexate aims to alleviate these by reducing synovial inflammation. If these persist, it indicates disease activity, not a drug side effect, making this finding incorrect for a methotrexate complication.
D. Presence of rheumatoid nodules
Rheumatoid nodules are a feature of rheumatoid arthritis, not a side effect of methotrexate. These subcutaneous nodules result from chronic inflammation, not drug toxicity. Methotrexate may reduce nodule formation by controlling disease activity, making this finding unrelated to medication complications.
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Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Methotrexate, a DMARD, inhibits folate metabolism, suppressing immune activity in rheumatoid arthritis. A common side effect is nausea, resulting from gastrointestinal mucosal irritation due to folate antagonism. This affects rapidly dividing cells in the gut, making nausea a recognized complication requiring monitoring or antiemetic support.
Choice B reason: Joint swelling is a symptom of active rheumatoid arthritis, not a complication of methotrexate. Methotrexate reduces joint inflammation by inhibiting immune responses. Persistent swelling suggests inadequate disease control, not a drug side effect, making this finding unrelated to methotrexate complications.
Choice C reason: Generalized aching and stiffness are symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis itself, not methotrexate complications. Methotrexate aims to alleviate these by reducing synovial inflammation. If these persist, it indicates disease activity, not a drug side effect, making this finding incorrect for a methotrexate complication.
Choice D reason: Rheumatoid nodules are a feature of rheumatoid arthritis, not a side effect of methotrexate. These subcutaneous nodules result from chronic inflammation, not drug toxicity. Methotrexate may reduce nodule formation by controlling disease activity, making this finding unrelated to medication complications.
Similar Questions
A client with hypothyroidism was prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid), a T4 replacement. The client was reading about hypothyroidism and asked the nurse why they are receiving only T4 replacement when hypothyroidism causes low T3 and T4 levels. What is the best response by the nurse?
A. T4 replacement does not require any TSH monitoring as is required with T3
Levothyroxine (T4) replacement requires TSH monitoring to ensure adequate dosing, as TSH reflects thyroid function. T3 replacement also requires monitoring, but T3 is less commonly used due to its short half-life. This statement is inaccurate, as TSH monitoring is essential for T4 therapy.
B. Your body effectively converts T4 into T3 so replacing T3 is unnecessary
The body converts levothyroxine (T4) to triiodothyronine (T3) via deiodinase enzymes in peripheral tissues, restoring both hormone levels. T3 replacement is unnecessary, as T4 provides a stable precursor for T3 production, making this statement accurate for explaining hypothyroidism treatment rationale.
C. T3 and T4 cannot be administered together because they will become inactive
T3 and T4 can be administered together in specific cases (e.g., combination therapy) without becoming inactive. However, T4 alone is standard due to its longer half-life and conversion to T3. This statement is inaccurate, as it falsely claims biochemical incompatibility between the hormones.
D. Drug therapy does not replace T3 because it is the inactive precursor to T4
T3 is the active thyroid hormone, not an inactive precursor to T4. T4 is converted to T3, which binds receptors to regulate metabolism. This statement is inaccurate, as it reverses the roles of T3 and T4 in thyroid hormone physiology and therapy.
Full Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Levothyroxine (T4) replacement requires TSH monitoring to ensure adequate dosing, as TSH reflects thyroid function. T3 replacement also requires monitoring, but T3 is less commonly used due to its short half-life. This statement is inaccurate, as TSH monitoring is essential for T4 therapy.
Choice B reason: The body converts levothyroxine (T4) to triiodothyronine (T3) via deiodinase enzymes in peripheral tissues, restoring both hormone levels. T3 replacement is unnecessary, as T4 provides a stable precursor for T3 production, making this statement accurate for explaining hypothyroidism treatment rationale.
Choice C reason: T3 and T4 can be administered together in specific cases (e.g., combination therapy) without becoming inactive. However, T4 alone is standard due to its longer half-life and conversion to T3. This statement is inaccurate, as it falsely claims biochemical incompatibility between the hormones.
Choice D reason: T3 is the active thyroid hormone, not an inactive precursor to T4. T4 is converted to T3, which binds receptors to regulate metabolism. This statement is inaccurate, as it reverses the roles of T3 and T4 in thyroid hormone physiology and therapy.
A febrile client admitted for pneumonia becomes diaphoretic and flushed. What pathophysiological process does the nurse suspect?
A. The client’s core body temperature reached the new thermoregulatory set point and the body is trying to prevent overheating
In fever, pyrogens reset the hypothalamic thermoregulatory set point, causing the body to raise core temperature via shivering and vasoconstriction. Once reached, diaphoresis and flushing occur to dissipate heat, preventing overheating. This statement accurately describes the body’s response to achieving the fever’s set point in pneumonia.
B. An exogenous pyrogen is directly resetting the client’s thermoregulatory set point in the anterior pituitary
Exogenous pyrogens (e.g., bacterial toxins) act via endogenous pyrogens (cytokines) to reset the hypothalamic, not anterior pituitary, set point. The pituitary regulates hormones, not thermoregulation. This statement is inaccurate, as it misidentifies the anatomical site and mechanism of fever induction.
C. The client is experiencing hyperthermia and the body’s mechanisms to control heat are no longer working effectively
Hyperthermia involves uncontrolled heat gain (e.g., heat stroke), not a regulated fever like in pneumonia. The client’s diaphoresis and flushing indicate intact heat loss mechanisms, not failure. This statement is inaccurate, as fever, not hyperthermia, drives the observed symptoms in this scenario.
D. An endogenous pyrogen is stimulating the production of leukotrienes to increase the thermoregulatory set point of the hypothalamus
Endogenous pyrogens (e.g., IL-1, IL-6) stimulate prostaglandins, not leukotrienes, to reset the hypothalamic set point in fever. Leukotrienes are involved in allergic responses, not thermoregulation. This statement is inaccurate, as it misattributes the biochemical mediator of fever in pneumonia.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: In fever, pyrogens reset the hypothalamic thermoregulatory set point, causing the body to raise core temperature via shivering and vasoconstriction. Once reached, diaphoresis and flushing occur to dissipate heat, preventing overheating. This statement accurately describes the body’s response to achieving the fever’s set point in pneumonia.
Choice B reason: Exogenous pyrogens (e.g., bacterial toxins) act via endogenous pyrogens (cytokines) to reset the hypothalamic, not anterior pituitary, set point. The pituitary regulates hormones, not thermoregulation. This statement is inaccurate, as it misidentifies the anatomical site and mechanism of fever induction.
Choice C reason: Hyperthermia involves uncontrolled heat gain (e.g., heat stroke), not a regulated fever like in pneumonia. The client’s diaphoresis and flushing indicate intact heat loss mechanisms, not failure. This statement is inaccurate, as fever, not hyperthermia, drives the observed symptoms in this scenario.
Choice D reason: Endogenous pyrogens (e.g., IL-1, IL-6) stimulate prostaglandins, not leukotrienes, to reset the hypothalamic set point in fever. Leukotrienes are involved in allergic responses, not thermoregulation. This statement is inaccurate, as it misattributes the biochemical mediator of fever in pneumonia.
The illustration shows various types of fracture. Select the one that depicts a greenstick fracture.
A. Complete break with both ends aligned
A complete break with both ends aligned is a simple or non-displaced fracture, not a greenstick fracture. Greenstick fractures involve partial breakage with bending, common in children due to flexible bones. This description does not match the characteristic bending of greenstick fractures.
B. Partial break with one side bent
A greenstick fracture is a partial break where one side of the bone bends and the other cracks, like a green twig. This occurs in children due to pliable bones with a thick periosteum. This description accurately depicts a greenstick fracture, making it the correct choice.
C. Break with bone piercing the skin
A break with bone piercing the skin is a compound (open) fracture, not a greenstick fracture. Compound fractures involve complete bone disruption and skin penetration, unlike the partial, bending nature of greenstick fractures, making this description incorrect for the fracture type.
D. Spiral break from twisting force
A spiral break from twisting force is a spiral fracture, characterized by a helical pattern around the bone. Greenstick fractures involve bending, not twisting, and are partial breaks. This description is inaccurate, as it describes a different fracture mechanism unrelated to greenstick fractures.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: A complete break with both ends aligned is a simple or non-displaced fracture, not a greenstick fracture. Greenstick fractures involve partial breakage with bending, common in children due to flexible bones. This description does not match the characteristic bending of greenstick fractures.
Choice B reason: A greenstick fracture is a partial break where one side of the bone bends and the other cracks, like a green twig. This occurs in children due to pliable bones with a thick periosteum. This description accurately depicts a greenstick fracture, making it the correct choice.
Choice C reason: A break with bone piercing the skin is a compound (open) fracture, not a greenstick fracture. Compound fractures involve complete bone disruption and skin penetration, unlike the partial, bending nature of greenstick fractures, making this description incorrect for the fracture type.
Choice D reason: A spiral break from twisting force is a spiral fracture, characterized by a helical pattern around the bone. Greenstick fractures involve bending, not twisting, and are partial breaks. This description is inaccurate, as it describes a different fracture mechanism unrelated to greenstick fractures.