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NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
The nurse takes a client's temperature before giving a blood transfusion. The temperature is 100 F orally. The nurse reports the finding to the registered nurse (RN) and anticipates that which action will take place?
A. The transfusion will begin after the administration of 650 mg of acetaminophen {Tylenol).
The transfusion will begin after the administration of 650 mg of acetaminophen (Tylenol).This option suggests that the nurse would administer acetaminophen to lower the client's temperature and then proceed with the blood transfusion. While acetaminophen can be used to reduce fever, the decision to administer medication should be made by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's overall condition and determining the cause of the fever. Administering medication without proper evaluation and orders from the healthcare provider is not appropriate.
B. The blood will be held, and the health care provider will be notified
The blood will be held, and the health care provider will be notified.This option is the correct choice. When a client has an elevated temperature before a blood transfusion, it is standard practice to hold the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. An elevated temperature could indicate an underlying infection or another condition that needs to be evaluated before proceeding with the transfusion to ensure the client's safety.
C. The transfusion will begin after the administration of an antihistamine
The transfusion will begin after the administration of an antihistamine. Administering an antihistamine would not be the appropriate action in response to an elevated temperature before a blood transfusion. Antihistamines are typically used to treat allergic reactions, not fevers. Holding the transfusion and notifying the healthcare provider to assess the situation would be the correct course of action.
D. The transfusion will begin as prescribed
The transfusion will begin as prescribed.This option is not appropriate because starting the transfusion without addressing the elevated temperature could pose risks to the client's health. Elevated temperatures may indicate an underlying infection or other conditions that need to be evaluated before proceeding with the transfusion. Holding the transfusion and seeking further guidance from the healthcare provider is the recommended action in this scenario.
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Full Explanation
A. The transfusion will begin after the administration of 650 mg of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
This option suggests that the nurse would administer acetaminophen to lower the client's temperature and then proceed with the blood transfusion. While acetaminophen can be used to reduce fever, the decision to administer medication should be made by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's overall condition and determining the cause of the fever. Administering medication without proper evaluation and orders from the healthcare provider is not appropriate.
B. The blood will be held, and the health care provider will be notified.
This option is the correct choice. When a client has an elevated temperature before a blood transfusion, it is standard practice to hold the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. An elevated temperature could indicate an underlying infection or another condition that needs to be evaluated before proceeding with the transfusion to ensure the client's safety.
C. The transfusion will begin after the administration of an antihistamine.
Administering an antihistamine would not be the appropriate action in response to an elevated temperature before a blood transfusion. Antihistamines are typically used to treat allergic reactions, not fevers. Holding the transfusion and notifying the healthcare provider to assess the situation would be the correct course of action.
D. The transfusion will begin as prescribed.
This option is not appropriate because starting the transfusion without addressing the elevated temperature could pose risks to the client's health. Elevated temperatures may indicate an underlying infection or other conditions that need to be evaluated before proceeding with the transfusion. Holding the transfusion and seeking further guidance from the healthcare provider is the recommended action in this scenario.
Similar Questions
A frail, older adult home health patient who had chickenpox as a child has been exposed to varicella (chickenpox) several days ago. What should the nurse do?
A. Arrange for the patient to receive gamma globulin.
Arrange for the patient to receive gamma globulin.Gamma globulin is a blood product that contains antibodies and is sometimes used for post-exposure prophylaxis in certain situations, such as for individuals who are immunocompromised or pregnant and have been exposed to varicella (chickenpox) or measles. However, for a frail, older adult who had chickenpox as a child and has been exposed to varicella again, arranging for gamma globulin may not be necessary if the patient is already immune to chickenpox.
B. Assess frequently for herpes zoster.
Assess frequently for herpes zoster.Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. While exposure to varicella can increase the risk of developing shingles in individuals who are susceptible, frequent assessment for herpes zoster is not necessary in this case if the patient is known to have had chickenpox in the past.
C. Be aware of the patient's immunity to chickenpox.
Be aware of the patient's immunity to chickenpox. This option is the correct choice. Since the patient had chickenpox as a child, they likely have immunity to chickenpox. Being aware of this immunity helps the nurse understand that the patient may not develop chickenpox again even after exposure to varicella.
D. Encourage the patient to have a pneumonia vaccine.
Encourage the patient to have a pneumonia vaccine.Encouraging the patient to have a pneumonia vaccine is unrelated to the immediate concern of exposure to varicella. While pneumonia vaccines are important for older adults, especially those who are frail, the priority in this scenario is to determine the patient's immunity to chickenpox due to prior infection.
Full Explanation
A. Arrange for the patient to receive gamma globulin.
Gamma globulin is a blood product that contains antibodies and is sometimes used for post-exposure prophylaxis in certain situations, such as for individuals who are immunocompromised or pregnant and have been exposed to varicella (chickenpox) or measles. However, for a frail, older adult who had chickenpox as a child and has been exposed to varicella again, arranging for gamma globulin may not be necessary if the patient is already immune to chickenpox.
B. Assess frequently for herpes zoster.
Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. While exposure to varicella can increase the risk of developing shingles in individuals who are susceptible, frequent assessment for herpes zoster is not necessary in this case if the patient is known to have had chickenpox in the past.
C. Be aware of the patient's immunity to chickenpox.
This option is the correct choice. Since the patient had chickenpox as a child, they likely have immunity to chickenpox. Being aware of this immunity helps the nurse understand that the patient may not develop chickenpox again even after exposure to varicella.
D. Encourage the patient to have a pneumonia vaccine.
Encouraging the patient to have a pneumonia vaccine is unrelated to the immediate concern of exposure to varicella. While pneumonia vaccines are important for older adults, especially those who are frail, the priority in this scenario is to determine the patient's immunity to chickenpox due to prior infection.
A patient is prescribed oral acyclovir for type 1 herpes simplex virus. What is the expected outcome if the patient is compliant with the medication regimen?
A. Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitisWhile oral acyclovir can be effective in managing HSV infections and reducing the severity of symptoms, it is not primarily used to prevent complications such as meningitis or pneumonitis. These complications may occur in severe cases of HSV infections, but oral acyclovir's main goal is to manage outbreaks and reduce symptoms.
B. Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaksOral acyclovir can help reduce the frequency of recurrent outbreaks in individuals with HSV infections. However, it does not completely eliminate the probability of recurrent outbreaks. Some individuals may still experience occasional outbreaks even with regular use of oral acyclovir. The medication is more focused on managing outbreaks when they occur rather than preventing them entirely.
C. Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms This option is the correct choice. Oral acyclovir is effective in shortening the duration of HSV outbreaks and reducing the severity of symptoms such as pain, itching, and lesions. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, which helps in faster healing and symptom relief. However, it does not cure the infection or eliminate the virus from the body.
D. Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to othersWhile oral acyclovir can help manage outbreaks and reduce viral shedding, it does not completely eliminate the risk of spreading the infection to others. It can reduce the likelihood of transmission during active outbreaks, but individuals with HSV can still shed the virus and be contagious even when they are not experiencing visible symptoms. Therefore, other precautions such as practicing safe sex and avoiding close contact during outbreaks are also important for preventing transmission.
Full Explanation
A. Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
While oral acyclovir can be effective in managing HSV infections and reducing the severity of symptoms, it is not primarily used to prevent complications such as meningitis or pneumonitis. These complications may occur in severe cases of HSV infections, but oral acyclovir's main goal is to manage outbreaks and reduce symptoms.
B. Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Oral acyclovir can help reduce the frequency of recurrent outbreaks in individuals with HSV infections. However, it does not completely eliminate the probability of recurrent outbreaks. Some individuals may still experience occasional outbreaks even with regular use of oral acyclovir. The medication is more focused on managing outbreaks when they occur rather than preventing them entirely.
C. Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
This option is the correct choice. Oral acyclovir is effective in shortening the duration of HSV outbreaks and reducing the severity of symptoms such as pain, itching, and lesions. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, which helps in faster healing and symptom relief. However, it does not cure the infection or eliminate the virus from the body.
D. Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
While oral acyclovir can help manage outbreaks and reduce viral shedding, it does not completely eliminate the risk of spreading the infection to others. It can reduce the likelihood of transmission during active outbreaks, but individuals with HSV can still shed the virus and be contagious even when they are not experiencing visible symptoms. Therefore, other precautions such as practicing safe sex and avoiding close contact during outbreaks are also important for preventing transmission.
A nurse is caring for a client during the fluid resuscitation phase of burn management. Which of the following is the best method for assessing the results of the fluid resuscitation?
A. Urine output is greater than 0.5 mL/kg/hr
Urine output is greater than 0.5 mL/kg/hrDuring the fluid resuscitation phase of burn management, one of the primary goals is to maintain adequate tissue perfusion and organ function by ensuring sufficient fluid intake. The best method for assessing the results of fluid resuscitation is by monitoring urine output. A urine output of greater than 0.5 mL/kg/hr is indicative of adequate renal perfusion and kidney function, suggesting that fluid resuscitation is effective in maintaining tissue perfusion and preventing complications such as acute kidney injury.
B. Serum hemoglobin is 11 gm/dL
Serum hemoglobin is 11 gm/dLSerum hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors, including fluid resuscitation, blood loss, and other medical conditions. While monitoring hemoglobin levels is important in overall patient assessment, it is not the best method specifically for assessing the results of fluid resuscitation during the initial phase of burn management.
C. Breath sounds are clear bilaterally
Breath sounds are clear bilaterally Clear bilateral breath sounds indicate adequate lung function and ventilation but may not directly reflect the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation in maintaining tissue perfusion. Lung sounds can be influenced by factors such as lung injury from smoke inhalation or mechanical ventilation settings, which may not correlate directly with fluid resuscitation outcomes.
D. Heart rate is 122/min
Heart rate is 122/minHeart rate can be influenced by various factors such as pain, stress, medications, and underlying medical conditions. While monitoring heart rate is important in assessing patient status, it is not the most reliable method for specifically evaluating the results of fluid resuscitation during the fluid resuscitation phase of burn management.
Full Explanation
A. Urine output is greater than 0.5 mL/kg/hr
During the fluid resuscitation phase of burn management, one of the primary goals is to maintain adequate tissue perfusion and organ function by ensuring sufficient fluid intake. The best method for assessing the results of fluid resuscitation is by monitoring urine output. A urine output of greater than 0.5 mL/kg/hr is indicative of adequate renal perfusion and kidney function, suggesting that fluid resuscitation is effective in maintaining tissue perfusion and preventing complications such as acute kidney injury.
B. Serum hemoglobin is 11 gm/dL
Serum hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors, including fluid resuscitation, blood loss, and other medical conditions. While monitoring hemoglobin levels is important in overall patient assessment, it is not the best method specifically for assessing the results of fluid resuscitation during the initial phase of burn management.
C. Breath sounds are clear bilaterally
Clear bilateral breath sounds indicate adequate lung function and ventilation but may not directly reflect the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation in maintaining tissue perfusion. Lung sounds can be influenced by factors such as lung injury from smoke inhalation or mechanical ventilation settings, which may not correlate directly with fluid resuscitation outcomes.
D. Heart rate is 122/min
Heart rate can be influenced by various factors such as pain, stress, medications, and underlying medical conditions. While monitoring heart rate is important in assessing patient status, it is not the most reliable method for specifically evaluating the results of fluid resuscitation during the fluid resuscitation phase of burn management.