Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
The PMHNP is evaluating a new client who reports symptoms of one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode. Which psychiatric condition is most closely associated with these experiences?
A. Bipolar I disorder
Bipolar I disorder requires at least one manic episode, not just hypomania, making this inconsistent with the presentation.
B. Bipolar II disorder
Bipolar II disorder is characterized by at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode without a history of full mania, matching the client’s symptoms.
C. Cyclothymic disorder
Cyclothymic disorder involves chronic, milder mood fluctuations but does not meet criteria for full hypomanic or major depressive episodes.
D. Schizoaffective disorder
Schizoaffective disorder includes mood episodes along with psychotic symptoms, which are not reported in this client’s history.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Mental Health Northern Kentucky University Proctored Exam 6. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Bipolar I disorder requires at least one manic episode, not just hypomania, making this inconsistent with the presentation.
Choice B reason: Bipolar II disorder is characterized by at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode without a history of full mania, matching the client’s symptoms.
Choice C reason: Cyclothymic disorder involves chronic, milder mood fluctuations but does not meet criteria for full hypomanic or major depressive episodes.
Choice D reason: Schizoaffective disorder includes mood episodes along with psychotic symptoms, which are not reported in this client’s history.
Similar Questions
The PMHNP is conducting a mental status exam (MSE) on a new client. He asks her to explain the meaning of the proverb, "A rolling stone gathers no moss." The PMHNP understands that the proverb portion of the MSE tests functioning in which areas of the brain?
A. Temporal lobe
The temporal lobe primarily processes auditory information and is involved in memory formation, but abstract reasoning and proverb interpretation are not localized to this area.
B. Parietal lobe
The parietal lobe integrates sensory information and contributes to spatial awareness, which is unrelated to abstract reasoning or interpretation of proverbs.
C. Occipital lobe
The occipital lobe is mainly responsible for visual processing and does not govern executive functions or abstract thought.
D. Frontal lobe
The frontal lobe, particularly the prefrontal cortex, is critical for executive functioning, abstract reasoning, planning, and judgment. Interpreting proverbs like “A rolling stone gathers no moss” requires conceptualization, abstraction, and insight, making this portion of the MSE a test of frontal lobe functioning.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: The temporal lobe primarily processes auditory information and is involved in memory formation, but abstract reasoning and proverb interpretation are not localized to this area.
Choice B reason: The parietal lobe integrates sensory information and contributes to spatial awareness, which is unrelated to abstract reasoning or interpretation of proverbs.
Choice C reason: The occipital lobe is mainly responsible for visual processing and does not govern executive functions or abstract thought.
Choice D reason: The frontal lobe, particularly the prefrontal cortex, is critical for executive functioning, abstract reasoning, planning, and judgment. Interpreting proverbs like “A rolling stone gathers no moss” requires conceptualization, abstraction, and insight, making this portion of the MSE a test of frontal lobe functioning.
A 66-year-old man is a long-time client of the PMHNP. He has been taking several vitamins under the supervision of the provider. Recently, he had a transient ischemic attack (TIA) and was placed on warfarin (Coumadin). Which of the following vitamins or supplements will the client need to discontinue?
A. L-methyl folate
L-methyl folate does not significantly affect coagulation or interact with warfarin and can usually be continued safely.
B. Vitamin D3
Vitamin D3 has no major interaction with warfarin and does not influence clotting, so it is generally safe to continue.
C. Melatonin
Melatonin may have minimal effects on blood pressure or sedation but does not interfere with warfarin metabolism.
D. Vitamin E
Vitamin E has anticoagulant properties and can increase the risk of bleeding when combined with warfarin. Discontinuation is recommended to reduce hemorrhagic risk.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: L-methyl folate does not significantly affect coagulation or interact with warfarin and can usually be continued safely.
Choice B reason: Vitamin D3 has no major interaction with warfarin and does not influence clotting, so it is generally safe to continue.
Choice C reason: Melatonin may have minimal effects on blood pressure or sedation but does not interfere with warfarin metabolism.
Choice D reason: Vitamin E has anticoagulant properties and can increase the risk of bleeding when combined with warfarin. Discontinuation is recommended to reduce hemorrhagic risk.
A 35-year-old man with bipolar I disorder presents with a new-onset manic episode and is successfully treated with medication adjustment. He notes chronic depressive symptoms that, on reflection, long preceded his manic episodes. He describes these symptoms as "feeling down," having decreased energy, and more often than not, having no motivation. He denies other depressive symptoms but feels that these alone have been sufficient to negatively affect his marriage. Which diagnosis best fits his presentation?
A. Bipolar II disorder
Bipolar II disorder involves at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode, but this patient has a history of full manic episodes, not hypomania.
B. Bipolar I disorder, current or most recent episode depressed
While bipolar I disorder with a current or most recent depressive episode captures the depressive phase, it does not account for the chronic depressive symptoms predating manic episodes.
C. Cyclothymic disorder
Cyclothymic disorder involves chronic fluctuating mood states without meeting criteria for full manic or major depressive episodes. This does not match the patient’s manic history.
D. Bipolar I disorder and persistent depressive disorder
Bipolar I disorder with coexisting persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) accounts for the patient’s chronic depressive symptoms and history of full mania, making it the most accurate diagnosis.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Bipolar II disorder involves at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode, but this patient has a history of full manic episodes, not hypomania.
Choice B reason: While bipolar I disorder with a current or most recent depressive episode captures the depressive phase, it does not account for the chronic depressive symptoms predating manic episodes.
Choice C reason: Cyclothymic disorder involves chronic fluctuating mood states without meeting criteria for full manic or major depressive episodes. This does not match the patient’s manic history.
Choice D reason: Bipolar I disorder with coexisting persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) accounts for the patient’s chronic depressive symptoms and history of full mania, making it the most accurate diagnosis.