Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
What is low birth weight classified as?
A. Weight is less than the 10th percentile (SGA)
Choice A: This is incorrect because weight less than the 10th percentile (SGA) means that the infant is smaller than expected for the gestational age, but not necessarily low birth weight. SGA infants may have intrauterine growth restriction due to maternal, placental, or fetal factors, but they may also be constitutionally small. SGA infants are at risk for hypoglycemia, hypothermia, polycythemia, and perinatal asphyxia.
B. Weight is greater than 90th percentile
Choice B: This is incorrect because weight greater than the 90th percentile means that the infant is larger than expected for the gestational age, but not necessarily high birth weight. Infants with weight greater than the 90th percentile are called large for gestational age (LGA) or macrosomic. LGA infants may have maternal diabetes, genetic factors, or post-term pregnancy as causes, but they may also be constitutionally large. LGA infants are at risk for birth trauma, shoulder dystocia, hypoglycemia, and respiratory distress.
C. Weight is between 10th and 90th percentile
Choice C: This is incorrect because weight between the 10th and 90th percentile means that the infant is appropriate for the gestational age (AGA), but not necessarily normal birth weight. AGA infants have a weight that matches their gestational age and are considered healthy and well-nourished. However, some AGA infants may have low or high birth weight depending on their gestational age at birth.
D. Weight of 2500g or less at birth
Choice D: This is the correct answer because low birth weight (LBW) is defined as a weight of 2500g or less at birth, regardless of the gestational age. LBW infants may be preterm (born before 37 weeks of gestation), term (born between 37 and 42 weeks of gestation), or post-term (born after 42 weeks of gestation). LBW infants are at risk for infection, bleeding, jaundice, and neurodevelopmental problems.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Maternity Proctored Exam 2. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because weight less than the 10th percentile (SGA) means that the infant is smaller than expected for the gestational age, but not necessarily low birth weight. SGA infants may have intrauterine growth restriction due to maternal, placental, or fetal factors, but they may also be constitutionally small. SGA infants are at risk for hypoglycemia, hypothermia, polycythemia, and perinatal asphyxia.
Choice B: This is incorrect because weight greater than the 90th percentile means that the infant is larger than expected for the gestational age, but not necessarily high birth weight. Infants with weight greater than the 90th percentile are called large for gestational age (LGA) or macrosomic. LGA infants may have maternal diabetes, genetic factors, or post-term pregnancy as causes, but they may also be constitutionally large. LGA infants are at risk for birth trauma, shoulder dystocia, hypoglycemia, and respiratory distress.
Choice C: This is incorrect because weight between the 10th and 90th percentile means that the infant is appropriate for the gestational age (AGA), but not necessarily normal birth weight. AGA infants have a weight that matches their gestational age and are considered healthy and well-nourished. However, some AGA infants may have low or high birth weight depending on their gestational age at birth.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because low birth weight (LBW) is defined as a weight of 2500g or less at birth, regardless of the gestational age. LBW infants may be preterm (born before 37 weeks of gestation), term (born between 37 and 42 weeks of gestation), or post-term (born after 42 weeks of gestation). LBW infants are at risk for infection, bleeding, jaundice, and neurodevelopmental problems.
Similar Questions
What is the only known cure for preeclampsia?
A. Administration of acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) every day of the pregnancy
Choice A: This is incorrect because acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), also known as aspirin, is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a preventive measure. ASA may reduce the risk of preeclampsia in some high-risk women by inhibiting platelet aggregation and improving blood flow to the placenta. However, ASA is not recommended for all pregnant women, as it may have adverse effects on the mother and the fetus, such as bleeding, premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, or fetal growth restriction.
B. Delivery of the fetus
Choice B: This is the correct answer because delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia, as it eliminates the source of the placental factors that cause the condition. Preeclampsia is a multisystem disorder characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is caused by abnormal placentation and endothelial dysfunction that lead to vasoconstriction, inflammation, and coagulation. Delivery of the fetus and the placenta resolves these abnormalities and restores normal maternal physiology.
C. Antihypertensive medications
Choice C: This is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a cure for preeclampsia, but a symptomatic management. Antihypertensive medications may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of maternal complications, such as stroke, seizure, or organ damage. However, antihypertensive medications do not address the underlying cause of preeclampsia and do not improve fetal outcomes. Moreover, some antihypertensive medications are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects.
D. Magnesium sulfate
Choice D: This is incorrect because magnesium sulfate is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a prophylaxis for eclampsia. Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves seizures and coma. Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that prevents or treats eclamptic seizures by stabilizing neuronal membranes and reducing cerebral edema. However, magnesium sulfate does not lower blood pressure or improve renal function in preeclamptic women. It also has side effects such as nausea, flushing, headache, or respiratory depression.
Full Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), also known as aspirin, is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a preventive measure. ASA may reduce the risk of preeclampsia in some high-risk women by inhibiting platelet aggregation and improving blood flow to the placenta. However, ASA is not recommended for all pregnant women, as it may have adverse effects on the mother and the fetus, such as bleeding, premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, or fetal growth restriction.
Choice B: This is the correct answer because delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia, as it eliminates the source of the placental factors that cause the condition. Preeclampsia is a multisystem disorder characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is caused by abnormal placentation and endothelial dysfunction that lead to vasoconstriction, inflammation, and coagulation.
Delivery of the fetus and the placenta resolves these abnormalities and restores normal maternal physiology.
Choice C: This is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a cure for preeclampsia, but a symptomatic management. Antihypertensive medications may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of maternal complications, such as stroke, seizure, or organ damage. However, antihypertensive medications do not address the underlying cause of preeclampsia and do not improve fetal outcomes. Moreover, some antihypertensive medications are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects.
Choice D: This is incorrect because magnesium sulfate is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a prophylaxis for eclampsia. Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves seizures and coma. Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that prevents or treats eclamptic seizures by stabilizing neuronal membranes and reducing cerebral edema. However, magnesium sulfate does not lower blood pressure or improve renal function in preeclamptic women. It also has side effects such as nausea, flushing, headache, or respiratory depression.
A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 1 who had an emergency cesarean birth 3 days ago is scheduled for discharge. As the nurse prepares her for discharge, she begins to cry. What action should the nurse take first?
A. Point out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby
Choice A: This is incorrect because pointing out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby may invalidate her feelings and make her feel guilty or ashamed. The nurse should acknowledge and respect the client's emotions and avoid making judgments or comparisons.
B. Assess her for pain
Choice B: This is incorrect because assessing her for pain is not the first action that the nurse should take. Although pain may be a factor that contributes to the client's emotional state, it is not the primary cause of her crying. The nurse should first establish rapport and trust with the client and then assess her physical and psychological needs.
C. Explain that she is experiencing postpartum blues
Choice C: This is incorrect because explaining that she is experiencing postpartum blues may be premature and inaccurate. Postpartum blues are mild and transient mood changes that occur in up to 80% of women within the first few days after childbirth. They are characterized by tearfulness, irritability, anxiety, and mood swings. However, the nurse should not assume that the client has postpartum blues without performing a thorough assessment and ruling out other possible causes of her crying, such as postpartum depression, anxiety, or trauma.
D. Allow her time to express her feelings
Choice D: This is the correct answer because allowing her time to express her feelings is the most appropriate and empathetic action that the nurse should take first. The nurse should listen actively and attentively to the client and provide emotional support and reassurance. The nurse should also use open-ended questions and reflective statements to facilitate communication and explore the client's concerns and coping strategies.
Full Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because pointing out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby may invalidate her feelings and make her feel guilty or ashamed. The nurse should acknowledge and respect the client's emotions and avoid making judgments or comparisons.
Choice B: This is incorrect because assessing her for pain is not the first action that the nurse should take. Although pain may be a factor that contributes to the client's emotional state, it is not the primary cause of her crying. The nurse should first establish rapport and trust with the client and then assess her physical and psychological needs.
Choice C: This is incorrect because explaining that she is experiencing postpartum blues may be premature and inaccurate. Postpartum blues are mild and transient mood changes that occur in up to 80% of women within the first few days after childbirth. They are characterized by tearfulness, irritability, anxiety, and mood swings. However, the nurse should not assume that the client has postpartum blues without performing a thorough assessment and ruling out other possible causes of her crying, such as postpartum depression, anxiety, or trauma.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because allowing her time to express her feelings is the most appropriate and empathetic action that the nurse should take first. The nurse should listen actively and attentively to the client and provide emotional support and reassurance. The nurse should also use open-ended questions and reflective statements to facilitate communication and explore the client's concerns and coping strategies.
Which data should alert the nurse that the neonate is postmature?
A. Presence of lanugo
Choice A: This is incorrect because lanugo is a fine, downy hair that covers the fetus in utero. It usually disappears by the 36th week of gestation, but it may persist in some preterm infants. Lanugo helps to retain body heat and protect the skin from amniotic fluid. Lanugo is not a sign of postmaturity, but of prematurity or intrauterine growth restriction.
B. Short, chubby appearance
Choice B: This is incorrect because a short, chubby appearance is typical of a term infant, who is born between 37 and 42 weeks of gestation. A term infant has a well-developed subcutaneous fat layer that gives them a rounded shape and smooth skin. A term infant also has a head circumference that is proportional to their body length and weight. A short, chubby appearance is not a sign of postmaturity, but of normal development.
C. Presence of vernix caseosa
Choice C: This is incorrect because vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance that covers the fetus in utero. It usually decreases by the 40th week of gestation, but it may remain in some term infants, especially in the skin folds. Vernix caseosa helps to moisturize and protect the skin from amniotic fluid and infection. Vernix caseosa is not a sign of postmaturity, but of term or near-term gestation.
D. Cracked, peeling skin
Choice D: This is the correct answer because cracked, peeling skin is a common sign of postmaturity, which occurs when the infant is born after 42 weeks of gestation. A postmature infant has a loss of subcutaneous fat and water that results in dry, wrinkled, and desquamated skin. A postmature infant also has a large head circumference that is disproportionate to their body length and weight. Cracked, peeling skin indicates prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid and placental insufficiency.
Full Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because lanugo is a fine, downy hair that covers the fetus in utero. It usually disappears by the 36th week of gestation, but it may persist in some preterm infants. Lanugo helps to retain body heat and protect the skin from amniotic fluid. Lanugo is not a sign of postmaturity, but of prematurity or intrauterine growth restriction.
Choice B: This is incorrect because a short, chubby appearance is typical of a term infant, who is born between 37 and 42 weeks of gestation. A term infant has a well-developed subcutaneous fat layer that gives them a rounded shape and smooth skin. A term infant also has a head circumference that is proportional to their body length and weight. A short, chubby appearance is not a sign of postmaturity, but of normal development.
Choice C: This is incorrect because vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance that covers the fetus in utero. It usually decreases by the 40th week of gestation, but it may remain in some term infants, especially in the skin folds. Vernix caseosa helps to moisturize and protect the skin from amniotic fluid and infection. Vernix caseosa is not a sign of postmaturity, but of term or near-term gestation.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because cracked, peeling skin is a common sign of postmaturity, which occurs when the infant is born after 42 weeks of gestation. A postmature infant has a loss of subcutaneous fat and water that results in dry, wrinkled, and desquamated skin. A postmature infant also has a large head circumference that is disproportionate to their body length and weight. Cracked, peeling skin indicates prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid and placental insufficiency.
