Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
When the nurse enters the room of a male client who was admitted for a fractured femur, his cardiac monitor displays a normal sinus rhythm (NSR), but he has no spontaneous respirations and his carotid pulse is not palpable. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Observe for swelling at the fracture site.
Observing for swelling at the fracture site is not immediately relevant in this emergency situation. The priority is to address the lack of pulse and respiration.
B. Analyze the cardiac rhythm in another lead.
Analyzing the cardiac rhythm in another lead is unnecessary when the patient has no pulse and is not breathing. Immediate life-saving measures are required.
C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram.
Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram is not the priority in this scenario. The patient needs immediate resuscitation efforts.
D. Begin chest compressions at 100/minute.
Beginning chest compressions at 100/minute is the correct intervention. The absence of a carotid pulse and spontaneous respirations indicates cardiac arrest, and chest compressions are essential to maintain circulation and oxygenation until further help arrives.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: Begin chest compressions at 100/minute.
Choice A rationale:
Observing for swelling at the fracture site is not immediately relevant in this emergency situation. The priority is to address the lack of pulse and respiration.
Choice B rationale:
Analyzing the cardiac rhythm in another lead is unnecessary when the patient has no pulse and is not breathing. Immediate life-saving measures are required.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram is not the priority in this scenario. The patient needs immediate resuscitation efforts.
Choice D rationale:
Beginning chest compressions at 100/minute is the correct intervention. The absence of a carotid pulse and spontaneous respirations indicates cardiac arrest, and chest compressions are essential to maintain circulation and oxygenation until further help arrives.
Similar Questions
A client with persistent low back pain has received a prescription for an electronic stimulator (TENS) unit. After the nurse applies the electrodes and turns on the power, the client reports feeling a tingling sensation. How should the nurse respond?
A. Remove electrodes and observe for skin redness.
Incorrect - Skin redness might indicate irritation, but the initial focus should be on the client's sensation.
B. Decrease the strength of the electrical signals.
Incorrect - Decreasing the strength of the electrical signals might be premature if the sensation is normal.
C. Check the amount of gel coating on the electrodes.
Incorrect - The amount of gel coating on the electrodes might not be the primary issue if the client is feeling a tingling sensation.
D. Determine if the sensation feels uncomfortable.
Correct- A tingling sensation is normal and expected when using a TENS unit, and it does not indicate any harm or damage to the skin or nerves. However, the sensation should not be painful or unpleasant for the client, and the nurse should adjust the intensity of the electrical signals accordingly.
Full Explanation
A) Incorrect - Skin redness might indicate irritation, but the initial focus should be on the client's sensation.
B) Incorrect - Decreasing the strength of the electrical signals might be premature if the sensation is normal.
C) Incorrect - The amount of gel coating on the electrodes might not be the primary issue if the client is feeling a tingling sensation.
D) Correct- A tingling sensation is normal and expected when using a TENS unit, and it does not indicate any harm or damage to the skin or nerves. However, the sensation should not be painful or unpleasant for the client, and the nurse should adjust the intensity of the electrical signals accordingly.
The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome Indicates that the program was effective?
A. New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented.
Incorrect - Developing and implementing new screening protocols does not directly indicate the effectiveness of a primary prevention program. It might indicate improved detection, but not necessarily prevention.
B. Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.
Incorrect - This outcome relates to secondary prevention (rehabilitation after disease complications) rather than primary prevention.
C. Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.
Correct- An improvement in average client scores on risk factor knowledge tests suggests that the primary prevention program has successfully educated clients about behaviors and practices that can help prevent sexually transmitted diseases. This improvement indicates that clients have a better understanding of the risks and protective measures, which is a key indicator of program effectiveness.
D. More than half of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process.
Incorrect - Diagnosing clients early in their disease process is an outcome of early detection (secondary prevention), not primary prevention.
Full Explanation
A) Incorrect - Developing and implementing new screening protocols does not directly indicate the effectiveness of a primary prevention program. It might indicate improved detection, but not necessarily prevention.
B) Incorrect - This outcome relates to secondary prevention (rehabilitation after disease complications) rather than primary prevention.
C) Correct- An improvement in average client scores on risk factor knowledge tests suggests that the primary prevention program has successfully educated clients about behaviors and practices that can help prevent sexually transmitted diseases. This improvement indicates that clients have a better understanding of the risks and protective measures, which is a key indicator of program effectiveness.
D) Incorrect - Diagnosing clients early in their disease process is an outcome of early detection (secondary prevention), not primary prevention.
An older client is admitted to the intensive care unit unconscious after several days of vomiting and diarrhea.
Vital Signs
Heart Rate-beats/minute- 110 Respirations - breathes/minute- 28 Blood Pressure – mmHG- 80/60
Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
Ph- 7.34
PaCO2- 34 mmHg
HCO3- 20 mmol/L
pO2- 90 mmHg
Electrolytes Results
Sodium
130 mEq/L(mmol/L) Potassium
2.5 mEq/L (mmol/L) Chloride
95 mEq/L (mmol/L)
Reference Range:
Sodium [136 to 145 mEq/L (136 to 145 mmol/L)]
Potassium [3.5 to 5 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mmol/L)]
Chloride [98 to 106 mEq/L (98 to 106 mmol/L)]
PaCO2 [35 to 45 mm Hg]
HCO, [21 to 28 mEq/L (21 to 28 mmol/L)] PaO2 [80 to 100 mm Hg)
The nurse inserts a urinary catheter and obtains a scant amount of dark amber output. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? (Please scroll and view each tab's information in the client's medical record before selecting the answer.)
A. Initiate continuous dopamine infusion at 2 mcg/kg/minute.
Incorrect - Initiating continuous dopamine infusion is not a priority in this situation. The client's low blood pressure and electrolyte imbalances require more immediate attention.
B. Administer promethazine 25 mg slow intravenous (IV) push every 4 hours.
Incorrect - Administering promethazine addresses symptoms like nausea and vomiting, but it doesn't address the primary issue of hypovolemia and low blood pressure.
C. Begin potassium chloride 10 mEq over 1 hour per secondary infusion.
Incorrect - Administering potassium chloride without addressing the fluid deficit can be dangerous and may lead to further electrolyte imbalances.
D. Give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 ml over 30 minutes.
Correct- The client's vital signs and laboratory results indicate hypovolemia (low blood pressure, low sodium, and low potassium). The immediate priority is to address the fluid deficit and correct the electrolyte imbalances. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) will help increase intravascular volume and improve blood pressure, as well as correct the electrolyte imbalances to some extent.
Full Explanation
A) Incorrect - Initiating continuous dopamine infusion is not a priority in this situation. The client's low blood pressure and electrolyte imbalances require more immediate attention.
B) Incorrect - Administering promethazine addresses symptoms like nausea and vomiting, but it doesn't address the primary issue of hypovolemia and low blood pressure.
C) Incorrect - Administering potassium chloride without addressing the fluid deficit can be dangerous and may lead to further electrolyte imbalances.
D) Correct- The client's vital signs and laboratory results indicate hypovolemia (low blood pressure, low sodium, and low potassium). The immediate priority is to address the fluid deficit and correct the electrolyte imbalances. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) will help increase intravascular volume and improve blood pressure, as well as correct the electrolyte imbalances to some extent.