Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
Which assessment finding in a 36-yr-old patient is most indicative of a need for further evaluation?
A. A breast lump that increases in size before the menstrual period.
A breast lump that increases in size before the menstrual period might be related to hormonal changes and is not necessarily indicative of a concerning issue.
B. Bilateral breast nodules that are tender with palpation.
Bilateral breast nodules that are tender with palpation might be related to benign conditions or hormonal changes.
C. A breast lump that is small and mobile, with a rubbery consistency.
A small, mobile, rubbery breast lump could suggest a benign condition like a fibroadenoma, which might not be as concerning.
D. A breast nodule that is 1 cm in size, nontender, and fixed.
A breast nodule that is 1 cm in size, nontender, and fixed could potentially raise concerns about malignancy and requires further evaluation.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Interprofessional Care of the Client and Family Across the Lifespan II Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale: A breast lump that increases in size before the menstrual period might be related to hormonal changes and is not necessarily indicative of a concerning issue.
Choice B rationale: Bilateral breast nodules that are tender with palpation might be related to benign conditions or hormonal changes.
Choice C rationale: A small, mobile, rubbery breast lump could suggest a benign condition like a fibroadenoma, which might not be as concerning.
Choice D rationale: A breast nodule that is 1 cm in size, nontender, and fixed could potentially raise concerns about malignancy and requires further evaluation.
Similar Questions
The nurse is caring for a 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and persistent nausea/vomiting
What condition the client is most likely experiencing?
A. Peptic Ulcer Disease
Peptic ulcer disease doesn't typically present with ecchymosis around the umbilicus (Cullen's sign) or significantly elevated amylase and lipase levels.
B. Gastroenteritis
Gastroenteritis is less likely given the specific symptoms, physical exam findings, and laboratory results indicating pancreatic involvement.
C. Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis fits the clinical picture with epigastric pain after heavy alcohol use, persistent nausea/vomiting, tenderness, and elevated amylase and lipase levels.
D. Diverticulitis
Diverticulitis typically presents with symptoms more localized to the lower abdomen and doesn't cause the characteristic findings seen in this scenario.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale: Peptic ulcer disease doesn't typically present with ecchymosis around the umbilicus (Cullen's sign) or significantly elevated amylase and lipase levels.
Choice B rationale: Gastroenteritis is less likely given the specific symptoms, physical exam findings, and laboratory results indicating pancreatic involvement.
Choice C rationale: Acute pancreatitis fits the clinical picture with epigastric pain after heavy alcohol use, persistent nausea/vomiting, tenderness, and elevated amylase and lipase levels.
Choice D rationale: Diverticulitis typically presents with symptoms more localized to the lower abdomen and doesn't cause the characteristic findings seen in this scenario.
A 23-year-old sexually active female presents with white copious discharge and itch and is diagnosed with yeast vaginitis. This condition is caused by overgrowth of which
microorganism?
A. Candida albicans
Yeast vaginitis, commonly known as a yeast infection, is typically caused by an overgrowth of Candida albicans, a type of fungus. Candida albicans overgrowth can lead to symptoms like white, thick discharge and itching in the vaginal area.
B. Lactobacillus acidophilus
Lactobacillus acidophilus is a bacterium associated with maintaining vaginal health rather than causing yeast infections.
C. Escherichia coli
Escherichia coli is a bacteria that can cause different types of infections but are not typically associated with yeast vaginitis.
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a bacteria and does not cause yeast vaginitis despite having similar presentation such as pus discharge per vaginally.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale: Yeast vaginitis, commonly known as a yeast infection, is typically caused by an overgrowth of Candida albicans, a type of fungus. Candida albicans overgrowth can lead to symptoms like white, thick discharge and itching in the vaginal area.
Choice B rationale: Lactobacillus acidophilus is a bacterium associated with maintaining vaginal health rather than causing yeast infections.
Choice C rationale: Escherichia coli is a bacteria that can cause different types of infections but are not typically associated with yeast vaginitis.
Choice D rationale: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a bacteria and does not cause yeast vaginitis despite having similar presentation such as pus discharge per vaginally.
Which is a major side effect of radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism?
A. TSH low,T3 & T4 elevated
Elevated T3 and T4 with low TSH levels are indicative of hyperthyroidism, not a side effect of radioactive iodine treatment.
B. TSH elevated, T3 & T4 low
One of the expected side effects of RAI treatment for hyperthyroidism is permanent hypothyroidism (or underactive thyroid, when the thyroid does not produce enough hormones). Elevated TSH levels with low T3 and T4 are indicative of hypothyroidism.
C. TSH,T3 & T4 low
Low TSH, T3, and T4 levels are not typical outcomes of radioactive iodine treatment; typically, the treatment leads to a decrease in T3 and T4 with increased TSH levels.
D. TSH, T4 elevated and T3 low
Elevated TSH and low T3 is major side effect of radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism. However, it does not cause elevated T4 levels.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale: Elevated T3 and T4 with low TSH levels are indicative of hyperthyroidism, not a side effect of radioactive iodine treatment.
Choice B rationale: One of the expected side effects of RAI treatment for hyperthyroidism is permanent hypothyroidism (or underactive thyroid, when the thyroid does not produce enough hormones). Elevated TSH levels with low T3 and T4 are indicative of hypothyroidism.
Choice C rationale: Low TSH, T3, and T4 levels are not typical outcomes of radioactive iodine treatment; typically, the treatment leads to a decrease in T3 and T4 with increased TSH levels.
Choice D rationale: Elevated TSH and low T3 is major side effect of radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism. However, it does not cause elevated T4 levels.