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NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy that can only be exhibited by a pregnant woman?
A. Fetal heartbeat auscultated with Doppler/fetoscope.
A fetal heartbeat auscultated with a Doppler or a fetoscope is a positive sign of pregnancy, as it confirms the presence of a living fetus in the uterus. A Doppler is an electronic device that uses sound waves to detect the fetal heart rate, while a fetoscope is a stethoscope-like instrument that amplifies the fetal heart sounds. The fetal heartbeat can be heard as early as 10 to 12 weeks of gestation with a Doppler and 18 to 20 weeks of gestation with a fetoscope.
B. Quickening
Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the pregnant woman, usually felt between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation for first-time mothers and 13 to 16 weeks of gestation for experienced mothers. However, quickening is not a positive sign of pregnancy, as it can be subjective and mistaken for other sensations, such as gas, hunger, or muscle spasms².
C. Morning sickness
Morning sickness is a common symptom of pregnancy that involves nausea and vomiting, usually in the first trimester. However, morning sickness is not a positive sign of pregnancy, as it can be caused by other factors, such as food poisoning, stress, or medication.
D. Positive pregnancy test
A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign. A pregnancy test detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the placenta, in the urine or blood of the woman. However, a positive pregnancy test does not guarantee a viable pregnancy, as it can be influenced by the timing, the quality, or the interpretation of the test. A positive pregnancy test can also occur in cases of ectopic pregnancy, molar pregnancy, or miscarriage.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Ati Maternal Newborn Midterm Proctored Exam 1. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: A fetal heartbeat auscultated with a Doppler or a fetoscope is a positive sign of pregnancy, as it confirms the presence of a living fetus in the uterus. A Doppler is an electronic device that uses sound waves to detect the fetal heart rate, while a fetoscope is a stethoscope-like instrument that amplifies the fetal heart sounds. The fetal heartbeat can be heard as early as 10 to 12 weeks of gestation with a Doppler and 18 to 20 weeks of gestation with a fetoscope.
Choice B reason: Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the pregnant woman, usually felt between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation for first-time mothers and 13 to 16 weeks of gestation for experienced mothers. However, quickening is not a positive sign of pregnancy, as it can be subjective and mistaken for other sensations, such as gas, hunger, or muscle spasms².
Choice C reason: Morning sickness is a common symptom of pregnancy that involves nausea and vomiting, usually in the first trimester. However, morning sickness is not a positive sign of pregnancy, as it can be caused by other factors, such as food poisoning, stress, or medication.
Choice D reason: A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign. A pregnancy test detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the placenta, in the urine or blood of the woman. However, a positive pregnancy test does not guarantee a viable pregnancy, as it can be influenced by the timing, the quality, or the interpretation of the test. A positive pregnancy test can also occur in cases of ectopic pregnancy, molar pregnancy, or miscarriage.
Similar Questions
How is purified follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) (urofollitropin [Metrodin]) administered to an infertile woman as part of the pharmacologic treatment?
A. Intranasal spray
Intranasal spray is not a correct option, as urofollitropin is not available in this form. Intranasal spray is a method of delivering some medications through the nose, where they can be absorbed by the mucous membranes. However, urofollitropin is a protein hormone that would be degraded by the enzymes in the nasal cavity and would not reach the bloodstream effectively.
B. Intramuscular injection
Intramuscular injection is the correct option, as urofollitropin is available in this form. Intramuscular injection is a method of delivering medications into the muscle tissue, where they can be absorbed by the blood vessels. Urofollitropin is a protein hormone that needs to be injected into the body to bypass the digestive system and avoid being broken down by the stomach acids and enzymes. Urofollitropin is usually injected into the thigh or buttock muscles once a day for several days, depending on the dosage and the response².
C. Vaginal suppository
Vaginal suppository is not a correct option, as urofollitropin is not available in this form. Vaginal suppository is a method of delivering medications into the vagina, where they can be absorbed by the vaginal walls or act locally. Urofollitropin is a protein hormone that would not be absorbed well by the vaginal mucosa and would not reach the ovaries, where it is supposed to stimulate the development of the follicles (eggs).
D. Tablet
Tablet is not a correct option, as urofollitropin is not available in this form. Tablet is a method of delivering medications orally, where they can be swallowed and absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract. Urofollitropin is a protein hormone that would be destroyed by the stomach acids and enzymes and would not reach the bloodstream or the ovaries.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Intranasal spray is not a correct option, as urofollitropin is not available in this form. Intranasal spray is a method of delivering some medications through the nose, where they can be absorbed by the mucous membranes. However, urofollitropin is a protein hormone that would be degraded by the enzymes in the nasal cavity and would not reach the bloodstream effectively.
Choice B reason: Intramuscular injection is the correct option, as urofollitropin is available in this form. Intramuscular injection is a method of delivering medications into the muscle tissue, where they can be absorbed by the blood vessels. Urofollitropin is a protein hormone that needs to be injected into the body to bypass the digestive system and avoid being broken down by the stomach acids and enzymes. Urofollitropin is usually injected into the thigh or buttock muscles once a day for several days, depending on the dosage and the response².
Choice C reason: Vaginal suppository is not a correct option, as urofollitropin is not available in this form. Vaginal suppository is a method of delivering medications into the vagina, where they can be absorbed by the vaginal walls or act locally. Urofollitropin is a protein hormone that would not be absorbed well by the vaginal mucosa and would not reach the ovaries, where it is supposed to stimulate the development of the follicles (eggs).
Choice D reason: Tablet is not a correct option, as urofollitropin is not available in this form. Tablet is a method of delivering medications orally, where they can be swallowed and absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract. Urofollitropin is a protein hormone that would be destroyed by the stomach acids and enzymes and would not reach the bloodstream or the ovaries.
What is the CDC recommended medication for the treatment of chlamydia?
A. Penicillin
Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
B. Acyclovir
Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
C. Doxycycline
Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
D. Podofilox
Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
What is the best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman in her third trimester who complains of feeling faint, dizzy, and agitated while her vital signs are being assessed?
A. Have the patient stand up and retake her blood pressure.
This is not a good intervention, as it may worsen the symptoms of faintness, dizziness, and agitation. Standing up can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure (orthostatic hypotension), which can reduce the blood flow to the brain and the fetus. This can cause lightheadedness, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness in the woman, as well as fetal distress or hypoxia.
B. Have the patient lie supine for 5 minutes and recheck her blood pressure on both arms.
This is not a good intervention, as it may also worsen the symptoms of faintness, dizziness, and agitation. Lying supine can cause compression of the inferior vena cava (a large vein that returns blood to the heart) by the gravid uterus, which can reduce the cardiac output (the amount of blood pumped by the heart) and the blood pressure. This can cause nausea, sweating, and visual disturbances in the woman, as well as fetal distress or hypoxia.
C. Have the patient sit down and hold her arm in a dependent position.
This is not a good intervention, as it may not improve the symptoms of faintness, dizziness, and agitation. Sitting down and holding the arm in a dependent position can lower the blood pressure in the arm, but not in the rest of the body. This can cause inaccurate readings of the blood pressure and delay the detection of hypotension or hypertension. This can also cause discomfort and pain in the arm due to impaired circulation.
D. Have the patient turn to her left side and recheck her blood pressure in 5 minutes.
This is the best intervention, as it can relieve the symptoms of faintness, dizziness, and agitation by improving the blood flow to the brain and the fetus. Turning to the left side can reduce the pressure of the uterus on the inferior vena cava and increase the cardiac output and the blood pressure. This can also optimize the placental perfusion (the blood flow to the placenta) and the fetal oxygenation.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not a good intervention, as it may worsen the symptoms of faintness, dizziness, and agitation. Standing up can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure (orthostatic hypotension), which can reduce the blood flow to the brain and the fetus. This can cause lightheadedness, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness in the woman, as well as fetal distress or hypoxia.
Choice B reason: This is not a good intervention, as it may also worsen the symptoms of faintness, dizziness, and agitation. Lying supine can cause compression of the inferior vena cava (a large vein that returns blood to the heart) by the gravid uterus, which can reduce the cardiac output (the amount of blood pumped by the heart) and the blood pressure. This can cause nausea, sweating, and visual disturbances in the woman, as well as fetal distress or hypoxia.
Choice C reason: This is not a good intervention, as it may not improve the symptoms of faintness, dizziness, and agitation. Sitting down and holding the arm in a dependent position can lower the blood pressure in the arm, but not in the rest of the body. This can cause inaccurate readings of the blood pressure and delay the detection of hypotension or hypertension. This can also cause discomfort and pain in the arm due to impaired circulation.
Choice D reason: This is the best intervention, as it can relieve the symptoms of faintness, dizziness, and agitation by improving the blood flow to the brain and the fetus. Turning to the left side can reduce the pressure of the uterus on the inferior vena cava and increase the cardiac output and the blood pressure. This can also optimize the placental perfusion (the blood flow to the placenta) and the fetal oxygenation.