Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
Which of the following is considered a manipulative body-based therapy?
A. Guided imagery
Guided imagery is a mind-body intervention using mental visualization techniques and does not involve direct manipulation of the body.
B. Meditation
Meditation focuses on mindfulness and relaxation techniques without physical manipulation of muscles or joints.
C. Reflexology
Reflexology is a manipulative body-based therapy that involves applying pressure to specific points on the feet, hands, or ears to stimulate healing and relaxation in corresponding body parts.
D. Yoga
Yoga combines physical postures, breathing, and meditation. While it involves the body, it is primarily classified as movement-based or mind-body therapy rather than strictly manipulative body-based therapy.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Mental Health Northern Kentucky University Proctored Exam 6. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Guided imagery is a mind-body intervention using mental visualization techniques and does not involve direct manipulation of the body.
Choice B reason: Meditation focuses on mindfulness and relaxation techniques without physical manipulation of muscles or joints.
Choice C reason: Reflexology is a manipulative body-based therapy that involves applying pressure to specific points on the feet, hands, or ears to stimulate healing and relaxation in corresponding body parts.
Choice D reason: Yoga combines physical postures, breathing, and meditation. While it involves the body, it is primarily classified as movement-based or mind-body therapy rather than strictly manipulative body-based therapy.
Similar Questions
An 83-year-old man presents to the community behavioral health clinic, where he is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease by the PMHNP. He currently smokes two packs of cigarettes a day and declines help with smoking cessation. Which medication for Alzheimer's disease is contraindicated in this patient due to smoking status?
A. None
"None" is incorrect because certain medications can interact with metabolic pathways affected by smoking.
B. Galantamine (Razadyne)
Galantamine is metabolized by the CYP1A2 enzyme, which is induced by smoking. This induction can reduce therapeutic levels of the drug, potentially making it less effective or requiring dose adjustment, thus contraindicating its use without careful monitoring.
C. Donepezil (Aricept)
Donepezil is metabolized primarily by CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 and is not significantly affected by smoking; it remains safe for use in smokers.
D. Rivastigmine (Exelon)
Rivastigmine is metabolized by esterases, not CYP enzymes, so smoking does not alter its metabolism, making it safe in this patient.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: "None" is incorrect because certain medications can interact with metabolic pathways affected by smoking.
Choice B reason: Galantamine is metabolized by the CYP1A2 enzyme, which is induced by smoking. This induction can reduce therapeutic levels of the drug, potentially making it less effective or requiring dose adjustment, thus contraindicating its use without careful monitoring.
Choice C reason: Donepezil is metabolized primarily by CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 and is not significantly affected by smoking; it remains safe for use in smokers.
Choice D reason: Rivastigmine is metabolized by esterases, not CYP enzymes, so smoking does not alter its metabolism, making it safe in this patient.
Based on her understanding of the etiologic risk factors for Parkinson’s disease, the PMHNP asks about family history and:
A. History of heavy drinking
Heavy alcohol consumption has not been consistently linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease and is not considered a primary etiologic factor.
B. History of smoking
Smoking has actually been associated with a lower risk of developing Parkinson’s disease in epidemiological studies, possibly due to neuroprotective effects of nicotine.
C. Exposure to environmental toxins
Exposure to environmental toxins, such as pesticides or herbicides, is a recognized risk factor for Parkinson’s disease. These toxins can cause dopaminergic neuron damage, contributing to disease development.
D. Early childhood hypoxia
Early childhood hypoxia may contribute to neurological vulnerabilities but is not a primary recognized risk factor for Parkinson’s disease.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Heavy alcohol consumption has not been consistently linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease and is not considered a primary etiologic factor.
Choice B reason: Smoking has actually been associated with a lower risk of developing Parkinson’s disease in epidemiological studies, possibly due to neuroprotective effects of nicotine.
Choice C reason: Exposure to environmental toxins, such as pesticides or herbicides, is a recognized risk factor for Parkinson’s disease. These toxins can cause dopaminergic neuron damage, contributing to disease development.
Choice D reason: Early childhood hypoxia may contribute to neurological vulnerabilities but is not a primary recognized risk factor for Parkinson’s disease.
A 13-year-old girl begins to have episodes of temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation. Which of the following is a possible diagnosis?
A. Bipolar disorder
Bipolar disorder involves mood swings between mania and depression, but frequent temper outbursts that are persistent and disproportionate are more characteristic of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder than classic bipolar episodes.
B. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is defined by severe, recurrent temper outbursts that are inconsistent with developmental level, occurring frequently over time. This diagnosis accounts for chronic irritability and is appropriate for this patient’s presentation.
C. Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia involves psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations and does not typically present with recurrent temper outbursts alone.
D. Brief psychotic disorder
Brief psychotic disorder involves sudden onset of psychotic symptoms that last less than one month, which does not align with chronic temper outbursts.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Bipolar disorder involves mood swings between mania and depression, but frequent temper outbursts that are persistent and disproportionate are more characteristic of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder than classic bipolar episodes.
Choice B reason: Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is defined by severe, recurrent temper outbursts that are inconsistent with developmental level, occurring frequently over time. This diagnosis accounts for chronic irritability and is appropriate for this patient’s presentation.
Choice C reason: Schizophrenia involves psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations and does not typically present with recurrent temper outbursts alone.
Choice D reason: Brief psychotic disorder involves sudden onset of psychotic symptoms that last less than one month, which does not align with chronic temper outbursts.