Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?
A. Multiparity.
Multiparity, or having given birth to multiple children, is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer, not an increased risk. The protective effect may be due to the repeated ovulatory cycles that occur during pregnancy.
B. Endometriosis.
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. It is associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. The exact link is not fully understood, but it is believed that the inflammatory and hormonal changes in endometriosis may contribute to cancer development.
C. Under 40 years of age.
Being under 40 years of age does not increase the risk of ovarian cancer. Advanced age is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence occurring in women over 60.
D. Use of contraceptive medications.
Use of contraceptive medications, particularly oral contraceptives, has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer. These medications suppress ovulation and decrease the exposure of the ovaries to potential carcinogens.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Multiparity, or having given birth to multiple children, is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer, not an increased risk. The protective effect may be due to the repeated ovulatory cycles that occur during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. It is associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. The exact link is not fully understood, but it is believed that the inflammatory and hormonal changes in endometriosis may contribute to cancer development.
Choice C rationale:
Being under 40 years of age does not increase the risk of ovarian cancer. Advanced age is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence occurring in women over 60.
Choice D rationale:
Use of contraceptive medications, particularly oral contraceptives, has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer. These medications suppress ovulation and decrease the exposure of the ovaries to potential carcinogens.
Similar Questions
Prior to an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?
A. Empty the bladder.
Before an amniocentesis, it is essential for the client to empty their bladder. A full bladder can interfere with the procedure, as it may obstruct the needle's entry into the uterus and increase the risk of accidental bladder puncture.
B. Nothing by mouth for 4 hours.
Nothing by mouth (NPO) for 4 hours is not necessary for an amniocentesis. It is a relatively simple and quick procedure that does not require fasting.
C. Ingest 3-liters of water.
Ingesting 3 liters of water is not indicated before an amniocentesis. While some ultrasound examinations may require a full bladder, this is not the case for an amniocentesis.
D. Nipple stimulation.
Nipple stimulation is not relevant or necessary before an amniocentesis. Nipple stimulation can trigger uterine contractions, which might be undesirable before the procedure, especially if the client is not in labor.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Before an amniocentesis, it is essential for the client to empty their bladder. A full bladder can interfere with the procedure, as it may obstruct the needle's entry into the uterus and increase the risk of accidental bladder puncture.
Choice B rationale:
Nothing by mouth (NPO) for 4 hours is not necessary for an amniocentesis. It is a relatively simple and quick procedure that does not require fasting.
Choice C rationale:
Ingesting 3 liters of water is not indicated before an amniocentesis. While some ultrasound examinations may require a full bladder, this is not the case for an amniocentesis.
Choice D rationale:
Nipple stimulation is not relevant or necessary before an amniocentesis. Nipple stimulation can trigger uterine contractions, which might be undesirable before the procedure, especially if the client is not in labor.
The nurse is caring for a client with uncomplicated gestational hypertension. Which are expected findings of the disorder? Select all that apply.
A. Edema.
Edema is not an expected finding of uncomplicated gestational hypertension. While some degree of edema can be common during pregnancy, it is not specifically related to gestational hypertension.
B. BP 155/92.
A blood pressure reading of 155/92 is an expected finding in a client with uncomplicated gestational hypertension. Gestational hypertension is defined as systolic blood pressure ≥140 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure ≥90 mmHg after 20 weeks of pregnancy, without the presence of proteinuria or other organ dysfunction.
C. Proteinuria.
Proteinuria is an expected finding in gestational hypertension. It is an important diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, which is a severe form of gestational hypertension.
D. Hepatic dysfunction.
Hepatic dysfunction is not an expected finding in uncomplicated gestational hypertension. Hepatic dysfunction would indicate more severe complications such as HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelet count), which is a medical emergency.
E. BP returns to normal after pregnancy.
Blood pressure usually returns to normal after pregnancy in women with uncomplicated gestational hypertension. However, it is essential to monitor the client closely postpartum to ensure blood pressure normalization.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Edema is not an expected finding of uncomplicated gestational hypertension. While some degree of edema can be common during pregnancy, it is not specifically related to gestational hypertension.
Choice B rationale:
A blood pressure reading of 155/92 is an expected finding in a client with uncomplicated gestational hypertension. Gestational hypertension is defined as systolic blood pressure ≥140 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure ≥90 mmHg after 20 weeks of pregnancy, without the presence of proteinuria or other organ dysfunction.
Choice C rationale:
Proteinuria is an expected finding in gestational hypertension. It is an important diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, which is a severe form of gestational hypertension.
Choice D rationale:
Hepatic dysfunction is not an expected finding in uncomplicated gestational hypertension. Hepatic dysfunction would indicate more severe complications such as HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelet count), which is a medical emergency.
Choice E rationale:
Blood pressure usually returns to normal after pregnancy in women with uncomplicated gestational hypertension. However, it is essential to monitor the client closely postpartum to ensure blood pressure normalization.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing urinary incontinence. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?
A. Decrease fiber intake.
Decreasing fiber intake is not a recommended action for urinary incontinence. Fiber intake is related to bowel health and does not directly affect urinary incontinence.
B. Avoid Kegel exercises.
Avoiding Kegel exercises is not recommended for urinary incontinence. Kegel exercises are beneficial for strengthening the pelvic floor muscles, which can help improve urinary continence.
C. Restrict fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Restricting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not advisable for urinary incontinence. Adequate hydration is essential for overall health, and limiting fluid intake can lead to dehydration and other health issues.
D. Reduce intake of caffeinated and carbonated beverages.
Reducing intake of caffeinated and carbonated beverages is a helpful recommendation for a client experiencing urinary incontinence. Caffeine and carbonation can irritate the bladder and worsen incontinence symptoms.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Decreasing fiber intake is not a recommended action for urinary incontinence. Fiber intake is related to bowel health and does not directly affect urinary incontinence.
Choice B rationale:
Avoiding Kegel exercises is not recommended for urinary incontinence. Kegel exercises are beneficial for strengthening the pelvic floor muscles, which can help improve urinary continence.
Choice C rationale:
Restricting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not advisable for urinary incontinence. Adequate hydration is essential for overall health, and limiting fluid intake can lead to dehydration and other health issues.
Choice D rationale:
Reducing intake of caffeinated and carbonated beverages is a helpful recommendation for a client experiencing urinary incontinence. Caffeine and carbonation can irritate the bladder and worsen incontinence symptoms.