Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A 72-year-old patient was admitted with epigastric pain caused by a peptic ulcer. Which patient assessment warrants an urgent change in the nursing plan of care?
A. Chest pain relieved with eating or drinking water
Chest pain that is relieved with eating or drinking water is not typically indicative of a complication from a peptic ulcer. This symptom may be related to conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
B. Burning epigastric pain 90 minutes after breakfast
Burning epigastric pain after eating is a common symptom of a peptic ulcer and, while uncomfortable, does not usually require an urgent change in the plan of care unless it significantly worsens or is accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
C. Back pain three or four hours after eating a meal
Back pain after eating can be associated with a peptic ulcer if the ulcer is located at the back of the stomach or the pain radiates; however, it does not typically warrant an urgent change in care without other symptoms.
D. Rigid abdomen and vomiting following indigestion
A rigid abdomen and vomiting following indigestion can indicate a perforated ulcer, which is a medical emergency. This requires immediate intervention and possibly surgical consultation, thus warranting an urgent change in the nursing plan of care.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Ati Med Surg Proctored Exam Midterm Rn 36 1125. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale
Chest pain that is relieved with eating or drinking water is not typically indicative of a complication from a peptic ulcer. This symptom may be related to conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
Choice B rationale
Burning epigastric pain after eating is a common symptom of a peptic ulcer and, while uncomfortable, does not usually require an urgent change in the plan of care unless it significantly worsens or is accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Back pain after eating can be associated with a peptic ulcer if the ulcer is located at the back of the stomach or the pain radiates; however, it does not typically warrant an urgent change in care without other symptoms.
Choice D rationale
A rigid abdomen and vomiting following indigestion can indicate a perforated ulcer, which is a medical emergency. This requires immediate intervention and possibly surgical consultation, thus warranting an urgent change in the nursing plan of care.
Similar Questions
A 55-year-old patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) is scheduled to receive a prescribed dose of epoetin alfa (Procrit). Which statement should the nurse include in her teaching about this medication?
A. "This medication will need to be stored at room temperature."
Storing the medication at room temperature is a practical instruction but does not explain the therapeutic purpose of the medication, which is essential for patient understanding.
B. "This medication is being given because your kidneys are not properly producing erythropoietin."
Epoetin alfa (Procrit) is used to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney disease by supplementing erythropoietin, a hormone the damaged kidneys can no longer produce effectively. This is the most informative statement for the patient's understanding of the medication's purpose.
C. "This medication will delay your need for dialysis as long as you take it."
While epoetin alfa can improve anemia and potentially improve quality of life, it does not directly delay the need for dialysis, which is determined by overall kidney function and not solely by the presence of anemia.
D. "This medication will help prevent your AV fistula from clotting."
Epoetin alfa does not have a role in preventing AV fistula clotting. It is specifically used to stimulate red blood cell production and has no direct effect on clotting mechanisms.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale
Storing the medication at room temperature is a practical instruction but does not explain the therapeutic purpose of the medication, which is essential for patient understanding.
Choice B rationale
Epoetin alfa (Procrit) is used to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney disease by supplementing erythropoietin, a hormone the damaged kidneys can no longer produce effectively. This is the most informative statement for the patient's understanding of the medication's purpose.
Choice C rationale
While epoetin alfa can improve anemia and potentially improve quality of life, it does not directly delay the need for dialysis, which is determined by overall kidney function and not solely by the presence of anemia.
Choice D rationale
Epoetin alfa does not have a role in preventing AV fistula clotting. It is specifically used to stimulate red blood cell production and has no direct effect on clotting mechanisms.
A nurse is caring for a client in the outpatient cardiologist's office. The client is alert and oriented. Lung sounds with crackles are heard bilaterally. Dyspnea is observed on exertion, and heart sounds reveal an S3 gallop. Which of the following findings is the nurse most likely to expect?
A. Elevated blood pressure
Elevated blood pressure is a common finding in cardiovascular conditions but is not specifically indicated by the presence of crackles, dyspnea on exertion, or an S3 gallop.
B. Decreased respiratory rate
A decreased respiratory rate is not typically associated with the presence of crackles and dyspnea; these symptoms are more indicative of increased work of breathing and potential fluid overload.
C. Pitting edema
Pitting edema is a classic sign of fluid retention, which can be associated with heart failure. The presence of crackles, dyspnea on exertion, and an S3 gallop are clinical indicators that suggest heart failure, making pitting edema a likely finding.
D. Irregular pulse
An irregular pulse may be found in various cardiac conditions but is not directly suggested by the symptoms described. The presence of an S3 gallop is more indicative of heart failure, which is commonly associated with fluid overload signs such as pitting edema.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale
Elevated blood pressure is a common finding in cardiovascular conditions but is not specifically indicated by the presence of crackles, dyspnea on exertion, or an S3 gallop.
Choice B rationale
A decreased respiratory rate is not typically associated with the presence of crackles and dyspnea; these symptoms are more indicative of increased work of breathing and potential fluid overload.
Choice C rationale
Pitting edema is a classic sign of fluid retention, which can be associated with heart failure. The presence of crackles, dyspnea on exertion, and an S3 gallop are clinical indicators that suggest heart failure, making pitting edema a likely finding.
Choice D rationale
An irregular pulse may be found in various cardiac conditions but is not directly suggested by the symptoms described. The presence of an S3 gallop is more indicative of heart failure, which is commonly associated with fluid overload signs such as pitting edema.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has atrial fibrillation and reports heart palpitations, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath. Which of the following procedures should the nurse anticipate for this client?
A. Pericardiocentesis
Pericardiocentesis is a procedure used to remove fluid from the pericardial sac and is not typically used to treat atrial fibrillation. It is more commonly indicated for conditions such as pericardial effusion or cardiac tamponade.
B. Septal myectomy
Septal myectomy is a surgical intervention to remove part of the thickened septal wall that separates the ventricles of the heart. It is primarily used to treat hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, not atrial fibrillation.
C. Pericardial window
A pericardial window is a procedure that creates an opening in the pericardium to allow fluid to drain into the surrounding chest cavity. This procedure is not a treatment for atrial fibrillation.
D. Synchronized electrical cardioversion
Synchronized electrical cardioversion is a procedure where a controlled electric shock is delivered to the heart to restore a normal rhythm. It is a common and effective treatment for atrial fibrillation, especially when the condition is causing significant symptoms like palpitations, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale
Pericardiocentesis is a procedure used to remove fluid from the pericardial sac and is not typically used to treat atrial fibrillation. It is more commonly indicated for conditions such as pericardial effusion or cardiac tamponade.
Choice B rationale
Septal myectomy is a surgical intervention to remove part of the thickened septal wall that separates the ventricles of the heart. It is primarily used to treat hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, not atrial fibrillation.
Choice C rationale
A pericardial window is a procedure that creates an opening in the pericardium to allow fluid to drain into the surrounding chest cavity. This procedure is not a treatment for atrial fibrillation.
Choice D rationale
Synchronized electrical cardioversion is a procedure where a controlled electric shock is delivered to the heart to restore a normal rhythm. It is a common and effective treatment for atrial fibrillation, especially when the condition is causing significant symptoms like palpitations, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath.