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NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A client presents to the clinic reporting vomiting and burning in her mid-epigastric area. The nurse knows that in the process of confirming peptic ulcer disease, the health care provider is likely to order a diagnostic test to detect the presence of what?
A. Excessive stomach acid secretion
Excessive stomach acid secretion is not the correct answer because it is not a diagnostic test, but a possible cause of peptic ulcer disease. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop in the lining of the stomach or duodenum due to damage from stomach acid and digestive enzymes.
B. An incompetent pyloric sphincter
An incompetent pyloric sphincter is not the correct answer because it is not a diagnostic test, but a possible complication of peptic ulcer disease. The pyloric sphincter is a muscular valve that controls the passage of food from the stomach to the small intestine. If it becomes damaged or weakened, it can cause gastric outlet obstruction, which is a blockage of the stomach.
C. A metabolic acid-base imbalance
A metabolic acid-base imbalance is not the correct answer because it is not a diagnostic test, but a possible consequence of peptic ulcer disease. Peptic ulcers can cause bleeding, perforation, or gastric outlet obstruction, which can affect the acid-base balance of the body. For example, vomiting can cause metabolic alkalosis, which is a condition where the blood is too alkaline.
D. An infection with Helicobacter pylori
An infection with Helicobacter pylori is the correct answer. Helicobacter pylori is a type of bacteria that can infect the stomach and duodenum and cause inflammation and ulcers. It is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease. The health care provider can order a diagnostic test to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori in the client's stomach or blood, such as a urea breath test, a stool antigen test, or a blood antibody test.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Ati Med Surg Nursing 102 Proctored Exam 4. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Excessive stomach acid secretion is not the correct answer because it is not a diagnostic test, but a possible cause of peptic ulcer disease. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop in the lining of the stomach or duodenum due to damage from stomach acid and digestive enzymes.
Choice B reason: An incompetent pyloric sphincter is not the correct answer because it is not a diagnostic test, but a possible complication of peptic ulcer disease. The pyloric sphincter is a muscular valve that controls the passage of food from the stomach to the small intestine. If it becomes damaged or weakened, it can cause gastric outlet obstruction, which is a blockage of the stomach.
Choice C reason: A metabolic acid-base imbalance is not the correct answer because it is not a diagnostic test, but a possible consequence of peptic ulcer disease. Peptic ulcers can cause bleeding, perforation, or gastric outlet obstruction, which can affect the acid-base balance of the body. For example, vomiting can cause metabolic alkalosis, which is a condition where the blood is too alkaline.
Choice D reason: An infection with Helicobacter pylori is the correct answer. Helicobacter pylori is a type of bacteria that can infect the stomach and duodenum and cause inflammation and ulcers. It is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease. The health care provider can order a diagnostic test to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori in the client's stomach or blood, such as a urea breath test, a stool antigen test, or a blood antibody test.
Similar Questions
A nurse is planning care for a client who has diverticulitis. Which of the following menu selections should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Sliced ham with green salad
Sliced ham with green salad is not a good choice for a client who has diverticulitis. Diverticulitis is a condition where small pouches in the colon become inflamed or infected. The client should avoid foods that are high in fat, such as ham, or that contain seeds, nuts, or skins, such as green salad, as they can irritate the colon and worsen the symptoms.
B. Pork tenderloin with green peas
Pork tenderloin with green peas is not a suitable choice for a client who has diverticulitis. Pork tenderloin is a high-fat food that can increase the inflammation and pain in the colon. Green peas are also a source of fiber that can be hard to digest and can cause gas and bloating.
C. Turkey sandwich with celery sticks
Turkey sandwich with celery sticks is not an appropriate choice for a client who has diverticulitis. Turkey sandwich may contain mayonnaise, cheese, or other ingredients that are high in fat and can aggravate the condition. Celery sticks are high in fiber and have strings that can get trapped in the pouches and cause infection.
D. Grilled chicken breast with white bread
Grilled chicken breast with white bread is the best choice for a client who has diverticulitis. Grilled chicken breast is a lean protein that can help the client heal and prevent malnutrition. White bread is a low-fiber food that can be easily digested and does not irritate the colon.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Sliced ham with green salad is not a good choice for a client who has diverticulitis. Diverticulitis is a condition where small pouches in the colon become inflamed or infected. The client should avoid foods that are high in fat, such as ham, or that contain seeds, nuts, or skins, such as green salad, as they can irritate the colon and worsen the symptoms.
Choice B reason: Pork tenderloin with green peas is not a suitable choice for a client who has diverticulitis. Pork tenderloin is a high-fat food that can increase the inflammation and pain in the colon. Green peas are also a source of fiber that can be hard to digest and can cause gas and bloating.
Choice C reason: Turkey sandwich with celery sticks is not an appropriate choice for a client who has diverticulitis. Turkey sandwich may contain mayonnaise, cheese, or other ingredients that are high in fat and can aggravate the condition. Celery sticks are high in fiber and have strings that can get trapped in the pouches and cause infection.
Choice D reason: Grilled chicken breast with white bread is the best choice for a client who has diverticulitis. Grilled chicken breast is a lean protein that can help the client heal and prevent malnutrition. White bread is a low-fiber food that can be easily digested and does not irritate the colon.
A nurse is assessing four female clients for obesity. Which of the following clients have manifestations of obesity?
A. Client who weighs 28% above ideal body weight
This is the correct answer because weighing 28% above ideal body weight is a sign of obesity. Ideal body weight is an estimate of the weight that corresponds to the lowest mortality for a given height and gender. Obesity is defined as having a body weight that is 20% or more above ideal body weight.
B. Client who has a waist circumference of 81.3 cm (32 in)
This is not the correct answer because having a waist circumference of 81.3 cm (32 in) is not a manifestation of obesity. Waist circumference is a measure of abdominal fat, which is associated with increased health risks. However, the cut-off point for waist circumference varies by gender and ethnicity. For women, a waist circumference of more than 88 cm (35 in) is considered high.
C. Client who has a BMI of 28
This is not the correct answer because having a BMI of 28 is not a manifestation of obesity. BMI is a measure of body mass index, which is calculated by dividing weight in kilograms by height in meters squared. BMI is used to classify weight status and health risks. For adults, a BMI of 18.5 to 24.9 is considered normal, 25 to 29.9 is considered overweight, and 30 or more is considered obese.
D. Client who has a body fat of 22%
This is not the correct answer because having a body fat of 22% is not a manifestation of obesity. Body fat is a measure of the percentage of fat in the body, which is determined by various methods such as skinfold thickness, bioelectrical impedance, or underwater weighing. Body fat is influenced by age, gender, and physical activity. For women, a body fat of 21 to 33% is considered normal, 33 to 39% is considered high, and more than 39% is considered very high.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because weighing 28% above ideal body weight is a sign of obesity. Ideal body weight is an estimate of the weight that corresponds to the lowest mortality for a given height and gender. Obesity is defined as having a body weight that is 20% or more above ideal body weight.
Choice B reason: This is not the correct answer because having a waist circumference of 81.3 cm (32 in) is not a manifestation of obesity. Waist circumference is a measure of abdominal fat, which is associated with increased health risks. However, the cut-off point for waist circumference varies by gender and ethnicity. For women, a waist circumference of more than 88 cm (35 in) is considered high.
Choice C reason: This is not the correct answer because having a BMI of 28 is not a manifestation of obesity. BMI is a measure of body mass index, which is calculated by dividing weight in kilograms by height in meters squared. BMI is used to classify weight status and health risks. For adults, a BMI of 18.5 to 24.9 is considered normal, 25 to 29.9 is considered overweight, and 30 or more is considered obese.
Choice D reason: This is not the correct answer because having a body fat of 22% is not a manifestation of obesity. Body fat is a measure of the percentage of fat in the body, which is determined by various methods such as skinfold thickness, bioelectrical impedance, or underwater weighing. Body fat is influenced by age, gender, and physical activity. For women, a body fat of 21 to 33% is considered normal, 33 to 39% is considered high, and more than 39% is considered very high.
A nurse is caring for an adult client who has a fever of 39.4°C (103°F) and is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. Over the last hour, the nurse notes that the client's urine output is 20 mL. The nurse should report this finding to the provider and anticipate a prescription for what?
A. An antipyretic medication
An antipyretic medication is not the best answer because it does not address the client's low urine output. An antipyretic medication is a drug that lowers the body temperature by reducing the production of heat or increasing the loss of heat. It may help the client feel more comfortable, but it does not improve the kidney function or prevent dehydration.
B. A diuretic medication
A diuretic medication is not the best answer because it may worsen the client's low urine output. A diuretic medication is a drug that increases the excretion of water and electrolytes by the kidneys. It may lower the blood pressure and reduce the fluid overload, but it may also cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and kidney damage.
C. A blood culture
A blood culture is not the best answer because it does not address the client's low urine output. A blood culture is a laboratory test that detects the presence of bacteria or other microorganisms in the blood. It may help identify the cause of the fever and guide the antibiotic therapy, but it does not improve the kidney function or prevent dehydration.
D. A fluid bolus
A fluid bolus is the best answer because it may improve the client's low urine output. A fluid bolus is a rapid infusion of a large volume of fluid, usually isotonic saline or lactated Ringer's solution. It may increase the blood volume and pressure, improve the tissue perfusion, and stimulate the urine production. It may also help lower the fever by diluting the pyrogens and increasing the heat loss.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: An antipyretic medication is not the best answer because it does not address the client's low urine output. An antipyretic medication is a drug that lowers the body temperature by reducing the production of heat or increasing the loss of heat. It may help the client feel more comfortable, but it does not improve the kidney function or prevent dehydration.
Choice B reason: A diuretic medication is not the best answer because it may worsen the client's low urine output. A diuretic medication is a drug that increases the excretion of water and electrolytes by the kidneys. It may lower the blood pressure and reduce the fluid overload, but it may also cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and kidney damage.
Choice C reason: A blood culture is not the best answer because it does not address the client's low urine output. A blood culture is a laboratory test that detects the presence of bacteria or other microorganisms in the blood. It may help identify the cause of the fever and guide the antibiotic therapy, but it does not improve the kidney function or prevent dehydration.
Choice D reason: A fluid bolus is the best answer because it may improve the client's low urine output. A fluid bolus is a rapid infusion of a large volume of fluid, usually isotonic saline or lactated Ringer's solution. It may increase the blood volume and pressure, improve the tissue perfusion, and stimulate the urine production. It may also help lower the fever by diluting the pyrogens and increasing the heat loss.