Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A client receiving parenteral nutrition by central venous access reports feeling unwell. The nurse assesses the client and suspects that the central line has become infected. Which of the following findings indicate that the client has developed a systemic infection? Select all that apply.
A. Edema
Choice A Reason: Edema is not a specific finding of a systemic infection, but rather a possible sign of fluid overload or impaired venous return. It can occur due to excessive infusion rate, heart failure, or obstruction of blood flow in or around the central line.
B. Purulent drainage at intravenous insertion site
Choice B Reason: This is a correct choice. Purulent drainage at intravenous insertion site is a finding of a local infection that can spread systemically. It indicates bacterial invasion and inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue around the catheter.
C. Redness at insertion site
Choice C Reason: Redness at insertion site is a finding of a local infection that can spread systemically. It indicates increased blood flow and inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue around the catheter.
D. Nausea
Choice D Reason: Nausea is not a specific finding of a systemic infection, but rather a possible side effect of parenteral nutrition or a symptom of another condition. It can occur due to electrolyte imbalance, hyperglycemia, or gastrointestinal disorders.
E. Leukocytosis
Choice E Reason: This is a correct choice. Leukocytosis is a finding of a systemic infection that indicates increased production and release of white blood cells in response to infection. It can be detected by a blood test.
F. Fever
Choice F Reason: This is a correct choice. Fever is a finding of a systemic infection that indicates increased body temperature due to activation of the immune system and release of pyrogens. It can be measured by a thermometer.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Med Surg Proctored Exam 4. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A Reason: Edema is not a specific finding of a systemic infection, but rather a possible sign of fluid overload or impaired venous return. It can occur due to excessive infusion rate, heart failure, or obstruction of blood flow in or around the central line.
Choice B Reason: This is a correct choice. Purulent drainage at intravenous insertion site is a finding of a local infection that can spread systemically. It indicates bacterial invasion and inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue around the catheter.
Choice C Reason: Redness at insertion site is a finding of a local infection that can spread systemically. It indicates increased blood flow and inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue around the catheter.
Choice D Reason: Nausea is not a specific finding of a systemic infection, but rather a possible side effect of parenteral nutrition or a symptom of another condition. It can occur due to electrolyte imbalance, hyperglycemia, or gastrointestinal disorders.
Choice E Reason: This is a correct choice. Leukocytosis is a finding of a systemic infection that indicates increased production and release of white blood cells in response to infection. It can be detected by a blood test.
Choice F Reason: This is a correct choice. Fever is a finding of a systemic infection that indicates increased body temperature due to activation of the immune system and release of pyrogens. It can be measured by a thermometer.
Similar Questions
A client has a patch test performed with the following results. Which of the following is the best response the nurse will offer the client regarding the observations from the test?
A. The test assesses for sun protection factor
Reason: The test does not assess for sun protection factor, but rather for contact dermatitis. Sun protection factor is a measure of how well a sunscreen protects the skin from ultraviolet radiation, which can cause sunburn and skin damage.
B. The test is inconclusive
Reason: The test is not inconclusive, but rather positive for some allergens and negative for others. The test involves applying small patches of different substances to the skin and observing for any reactions after 48 hours.
C. The presence of erythema indicates you are allergic to the allergen
Reason: This is the correct choice. The presence of erythema indicates you are allergic to the allergen, as it shows inflammation and irritation of the skin due to an immune response. Erythema is redness of the skin that can be accompanied by itching, swelling, or blisters.
D. The areas that did not turn red indicate low risk for skin cancer
Reason: The areas that did not turn red do not indicate low risk for skin cancer, but rather no reaction to the allergen. Skin cancer is a malignant growth of abnormal cells in the skin that can be caused by various factors, such as genetic mutations, exposure to carcinogens, or immunosuppression.
Full Explanation
Choice A Reason: The test does not assess for sun protection factor, but rather for contact dermatitis. Sun protection factor is a measure of how well a sunscreen protects the skin from ultraviolet radiation, which can cause sunburn and skin damage.
Choice B Reason: The test is not inconclusive, but rather positive for some allergens and negative for others. The test involves applying small patches of different substances to the skin and observing for any reactions after 48 hours.
Choice C Reason: This is the correct choice. The presence of erythema indicates you are allergic to the allergen, as it shows inflammation and irritation of the skin due to an immune response. Erythema is redness of the skin that can be accompanied by itching, swelling, or blisters.
Choice D Reason: The areas that did not turn red do not indicate low risk for skin cancer, but rather no reaction to the allergen. Skin cancer is a malignant growth of abnormal cells in the skin that can be caused by various factors, such as genetic mutations, exposure to carcinogens, or immunosuppression.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) therapy via an infusion pump. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Obtain the client's blood glucose every 12 hr.
Reason: Obtaining the client's blood glucose every 12 hr is not enough, as the nurse should monitor it more frequently, at least every 4 to 6 hr, to prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. TPN is a high-glucose solution that can affect the blood sugar levels.
B. Change the IV site dressing every 4 days.
Reason: Changing the IV site dressing every 4 days is not enough, as the nurse should change it daily or as needed to prevent infection. TPN is a high-risk solution that can introduce microorganisms into the bloodstream.
C. Change the IV tubing every 24 hr.
Reason: This is the correct choice. Changing the IV tubing every 24 hr is recommended to prevent infection and maintain sterility. TPN is a complex solution that can support bacterial growth and contamination.
D. Weigh the client every other day.
Reason: Weighing the client every other day is not enough, as the nurse should weigh the client daily to evaluate fluid balance and nutritional status. TPN can cause fluid retention or depletion, as well as weight gain or loss.
Full Explanation
Choice A Reason: Obtaining the client's blood glucose every 12 hr is not enough, as the nurse should monitor it more frequently, at least every 4 to 6 hr, to prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. TPN is a high-glucose solution that can affect the blood sugar levels.
Choice B Reason: Changing the IV site dressing every 4 days is not enough, as the nurse should change it daily or as needed to prevent infection. TPN is a high-risk solution that can introduce microorganisms into the bloodstream.
Choice C Reason: This is the correct choice. Changing the IV tubing every 24 hr is recommended to prevent infection and maintain sterility. TPN is a complex solution that can support bacterial growth and contamination.
Choice D Reason: Weighing the client every other day is not enough, as the nurse should weigh the client daily to evaluate fluid balance and nutritional status. TPN can cause fluid retention or depletion, as well as weight gain or loss.
A client arrives to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. The client has a loss of sensation and flaccid paralysis. Which of the following complications of an acute spinal cord injury does the nurse suspect?
A. Hemorrhage
Reason: Hemorrhage is not a complication of an acute spinal cord injury, but rather a possible cause of it. Hemorrhage can occur due to trauma or rupture of blood vessels in or around the spinal cord, leading to compression and damage of the nerve tissue.
B. Spinal shock
Reason: This is the correct choice. Spinal shock is a complication of an acute spinal cord injury that occurs within minutes to hours after the injury. It is characterized by loss of sensation, motor function, reflexes, and autonomic function below the level of injury. It is caused by transient disruption of nerve conduction and synaptic transmission in the spinal cord.
C. Apoptosis
Reason: Apoptosis is not a complication of an acute spinal cord injury, but rather a cellular process that occurs after it. Apoptosis is programmed cell death that occurs in response to injury or stress. It can lead to further loss of neurons and glial cells in the spinal cord over time.
D. Neurogenic shock
Reason: Neurogenic shock is a complication of an acute spinal cord injury that occurs within hours to days after the injury. It is characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and peripheral vasodilation due to loss of sympathetic tone and unopposed parasympathetic activity. It is caused by disruption of autonomic pathways in the spinal cord.
Full Explanation
Choice A Reason: Hemorrhage is not a complication of an acute spinal cord injury, but rather a possible cause of it. Hemorrhage can occur due to trauma or rupture of blood vessels in or around the spinal cord, leading to compression and damage of the nerve tissue.
Choice B Reason: This is the correct choice. Spinal shock is a complication of an acute spinal cord injury that occurs within minutes to hours after the injury. It is characterized by loss of sensation, motor function, reflexes, and autonomic function below the level of injury. It is caused by transient disruption of nerve conduction and synaptic transmission in the spinal cord.
Choice C Reason: Apoptosis is not a complication of an acute spinal cord injury, but rather a cellular process that occurs after it. Apoptosis is programmed cell death that occurs in response to injury or stress. It can lead to further loss of neurons and glial cells in the spinal cord over time.
Choice D Reason: Neurogenic shock is a complication of an acute spinal cord injury that occurs within hours to days after the injury. It is characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and peripheral vasodilation due to loss of sympathetic tone and unopposed parasympathetic activity. It is caused by disruption of autonomic pathways in the spinal cord.