Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A nurse is preparing to administer an osmotic diuretic IV to a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as the purpose of the medication?
A. Reduce edema of the brain.
Reason: This is correct because an osmotic diuretic, such as mannitol, works by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the blood vessels, thereby reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure.
B. Increase cell size in the brain.
Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would decrease, not increase, the cell size in the brain by removing fluid from the intracellular space.
C. Expand extracellular fluid volume.
Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would decrease, not expand, the extracellular fluid volume by increasing the urine output and excreting excess fluid from the body.
D. Provide fluid hydration.
Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would not provide fluid hydration, but rather cause fluid loss and dehydration.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Med Surg Custom N235 Final Summer 2023 Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is correct because an osmotic diuretic, such as mannitol, works by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the blood vessels, thereby reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would decrease, not increase, the cell size in the brain by removing fluid from the intracellular space.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would decrease, not expand, the extracellular fluid volume by increasing the urine output and excreting excess fluid from the body.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would not provide fluid hydration, but rather cause fluid loss and dehydration.
Similar Questions
A nurse is caring for a client who is unconscious following a cerebral hemorrhage. Which of the following nursing interventions is of highest priority?
A. Monitor the client's electrolyte levels.
Reason: This is incorrect because monitoring the client's electrolyte levels is not the highest priority, as it does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction or aspiration.
B. Suction saliva from the client's mouth.
Reason: This is correct because suctioning saliva from the client's mouth is the highest priority, as it prevents airway obstruction and aspiration, which can lead to respiratory distress and infection.
C. Record the client's intake and output.
Reason: This is incorrect because recording the client's intake and output is not the highest priority, as it does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction or aspiration.
D. Perform passive range of motion on each extremity.
Reason: This is incorrect because performing passive range of motion on each extremity is not the highest priority, as it does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction or aspiration.
Full Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because monitoring the client's electrolyte levels is not the highest priority, as it does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction or aspiration.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because suctioning saliva from the client's mouth is the highest priority, as it prevents airway obstruction and aspiration, which can lead to respiratory distress and infection.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because recording the client's intake and output is not the highest priority, as it does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction or aspiration.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because performing passive range of motion on each extremity is not the highest priority, as it does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction or aspiration.
A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which of the following clients first?
A. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), has total cholesterol of 318 mg/dL, and is prescribed atorvastatin
Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is post-CABG and has high cholesterol is not in immediate danger, as atorvastatin is a long-term medication that lowers cholesterol and prevents cardiovascular complications.
B. A client who has pneumonia, a WBC count of 11,500/mm³, and is prescribed piperacillin
Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has pneumonia and a slightly elevated WBC count is not in immediate danger, as piperacillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections.
C. A client who has renal failure, a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L, and is prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
Reason: This is correct because a client who has renal failure and a high serum potassium level is in immediate danger, as sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an emergency medication that lowers potassium and prevents cardiac arrhythmias.
D. A client who has anemia, hemoglobin of 11 g/dL, and is prescribed epoetin alfa
Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has anemia and a mild hemoglobin deficiency is not in immediate danger, as epoetin alfa is a long-term medication that stimulates red blood cell production and improves oxygen delivery.
Full Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is post-CABG and has high cholesterol is not in immediate danger, as atorvastatin is a long-term medication that lowers cholesterol and prevents cardiovascular complications.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has pneumonia and a slightly elevated WBC count is not in immediate danger, as piperacillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because a client who has renal failure and a high serum potassium level is in immediate danger, as sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an emergency medication that lowers potassium and prevents cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has anemia and a mild hemoglobin deficiency is not in immediate danger, as epoetin alfa is a long-term medication that stimulates red blood cell production and improves oxygen delivery.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism and has a new prescription for enoxaparin 1.5 mg/kg/dose subcutaneously every 12 hours. The client weighs 245 lbs. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Full Explanation
To calculate the dose of enoxaparin, follow these steps:
1) Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms:
245 lbs / 2.2046 (kg/lb) = 111.13 kg (rounded to the nearest whole number, it's 111 kg).
2) Multiply the weight in kilograms by the prescribed dose per kilogram:
111 kg x 1.5 mg/kg = 166.5 mg.
Round the answer to the nearest whole number, so the nurse should administer 167 mg per dose of enoxaparin every 12 hours to the client with a pulmonary embolism.
