Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A nurse is reviewing a client’s cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds.
Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying
A. Atrial fibrillation.
wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response. There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
B. Complete heart block
is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
C. First-degree atrioventricular block
first-degree atrioventricular block. This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip.
D. Premature atrial complexes
D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Proctored Exam A. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
- . Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, first-degree atrioventricular block.
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip.
In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
Similar Questions
A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client.
Which of the following information provided by the client indicates improvement? Select all that apply.
A. “I have gained 1.8 kg (4 lb) recently, and my BMI is 18.9.”
A recent weight gain of 1.8 kg (4 lb) with a BMI of 18.9 may indicate potential nutritional issues or underlying health problems that require further investigation.
B. “My adult child prepares two meals per day for me.”
Having an adult child prepare meals could suggest the client may have difficulties with meal preparation, possibly due to physical or cognitive limitations.
C. “My clothing is always clean and appropriate for the weather.”
Clean and weather-appropriate clothing indicates the client is managing their personal hygiene and dressing appropriately, which does not typically prompt further assessment.
D. “I receive three baths per week from a home care aide.”
Receiving regular baths from a home care aide suggests the client has support for personal hygiene, which is generally a positive indicator and does not necessitate further assessment.
E. “I frequently have toothaches and haven’t had dental care in a while.”
Frequent toothaches and lack of dental care can indicate poor oral health, which can have significant implications for overall health and nutrition, warranting a more detailed assessment.
F. “I make eye contact and smile while speaking.”
Making eye contact and smiling while speaking generally indicates good social interaction skills and mental well-being, which does not typically prompt further assessment.
Full Explanation
The correct answer is choice a, b, e.
Choice A rationale: A recent weight gain of 1.8 kg (4 lb) with a BMI of 18.9 may indicate potential nutritional issues or underlying health problems that require further investigation.
Choice B rationale: Having an adult child prepare meals could suggest the client may have difficulties with meal preparation, possibly due to physical or cognitive limitations.
Choice C rationale: Clean and weather-appropriate clothing indicates the client is managing their personal hygiene and dressing appropriately, which does not typically prompt further assessment.
Choice D rationale: Receiving regular baths from a home care aide suggests the client has support for personal hygiene, which is generally a positive indicator and does not necessitate further assessment.
Choice E rationale: Frequent toothaches and lack of dental care can indicate poor oral health, which can have significant implications for overall health and nutrition, warranting a more detailed assessment.
Choice F rationale: Making eye contact and smiling while speaking generally indicates good social interaction skills and mental well-being, which does not typically prompt further assessment.
A nurse is caring for a newborn whose mother was taking methadone during her pregnancy.
Which of the following findings indicates the newborn is experiencing withdrawal?
A. Acrocyanosis
, acrocyanosis, is wrong because it is a normal finding in newborns. Acrocyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the hands and feet due to immature peripheral circulation. It usually resolves within the first 24 to 48 hours of life.
B. Bradycardia
bradycardia, is wrong because it is not a typical sign of withdrawal. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, usually less than 100 beats per minute in newborns. It can be caused by hypoxia, hypothermia, hypoglycemia, or vagal stimulation.
C. Bulging fontanels
, bulging fontanels, is wrong because it is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, not withdrawal. Bulging fontanels can be caused by meningitis, hydrocephalus, or hemorrhage. Normal ranges for newborn vital signs are as follows:
D. Hypertonicity
Full Explanation
Hypertonicity is a sign of increased muscle tone and stiffness, which can indicate that the newborn is experiencing withdrawal from methadone exposure in utero. Methadone is an opioid medication that can cross the placenta and cause neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) in the newborn.
Choice A, acrocyanosis, is wrong because it is a normal finding in newborns.
Acrocyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the hands and feet due to immature peripheral circulation. It usually resolves within the first 24 to 48 hours of life.
Choice B, bradycardia, is wrong because it is not a typical sign of withdrawal.
Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, usually less than 100 beats per minute in newborns. It can be caused by hypoxia, hypothermia, hypoglycemia, or vagal stimulation.
Choice C, bulging fontanels, is wrong because it is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, not withdrawal. Bulging fontanels can be caused by meningitis, hydrocephalus, or hemorrhage.
Normal ranges for newborn vital signs are as follows:
- Heart rate: 120 to 160 beats per minute
- Respiratory rate: 30 to 60 breaths per minute
- Temperature: 36.5 to 37.5°C (97.7 to 99.5°F)
- Blood pressure: 60 to 80 mm Hg systolic and 40 to 50 mm Hg diastolic
A nurse inadvertently administers 160 mg of valsartan PO to a client who was scheduled to receive 80 mg.
Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to take?
A. Monitor the client’s urine output
wrong because monitoring the client’s urine output is not a priority action for a client who received an overdose of valsartan. Valsartan does not have a direct effect on urine output, although it may affect kidney function in some cases. The nurse should monitor the client’s serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels to assess kidney function, but this is not as urgent as evaluating the client for orthostatic hypotension.
B. Check the client for nasal congestion
wrong because checking the client for nasal congestion is not a priority action for a client who received an overdose of valsartan.
C. Evaluate the client for orthostatic hypotension
Valsartan is a medication that lowers blood pressure by blocking the action of angiotensin II, a hormone that causes blood vessels to constrict. By dilating the blood vessels, valsartan reduces the pressure in the arteries and improves blood flow to the organs. However, if the dose of valsartan is too high, it can cause excessive lowering of blood pressure, which can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, blurred vision, or nausea. This is especially likely when the client changes position from lying or sitting to standing, which is called orthostatic hypotension. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and pulse in different positions and report any significant changes to the provider. The nurse should also instruct the client to rise slowly from a lying or sitting position and to avoid driving or operating machinery until the effects of the medication wear off.
D. Obtain the client’s laboratory results
wrong because obtaining the client’s laboratory results is not a priority action for a client who received an overdose of valsartan.
Full Explanation
