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A nurse is reviewing the health history for a client who has angina pectoris and a prescription for propranolol hydrochloride PO 40 mg twice daily. Which of the following findings in the history should the nurse report to the provider?

A. The client has a history of hypertension.

The client has a history of hypertension is not the correct answer. Hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure is abnormally high, usually above 140/90 mmHg. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the blood pressure and reduces the workload of the heart. Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris, which is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.

B. The client has a history of hypothyroidism.

The client has a history of hypothyroidism is not the correct answer. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, which regulate the metabolism and energy levels. Propranolol can mask some of the signs of hypothyroidism, such as tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety. Propranolol can also interfere with the absorption and conversion of thyroid hormones. The nurse should monitor the client's thyroid function tests and report any abnormal values to the provider, but this finding is not a contraindication to the use of propranolol.

C. The client has a history of bronchial asthma.

The client has a history of bronchial asthma is the correct answer. Bronchial asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks the beta-1 receptors in the heart and the beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Blocking the beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, which can worsen the symptoms of asthma and trigger an asthma attack. Propranolol is contraindicated in clients who have bronchial asthma, and the nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately.

D. The client has a history of migraine headaches.

The client has a history of migraine headaches is not the correct answer. Migraine headaches are recurrent episodes of severe and throbbing pain, usually on one side of the head, that can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Propranolol is effective in preventing migraine headaches, as it reduces the frequency and severity of the attacks. Propranolol is indicated for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches, and the nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.

This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Ati Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2. Take the full exam now


Full Explanation

Choice A reason: The client has a history of hypertension is not the correct answer. Hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure is abnormally high, usually above 140/90 mmHg. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the blood pressure and reduces the workload of the heart. Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris, which is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.

Choice B reason: The client has a history of hypothyroidism is not the correct answer. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, which regulate the metabolism and energy levels. Propranolol can mask some of the signs of hypothyroidism, such as tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety. Propranolol can also interfere with the absorption and conversion of thyroid hormones. The nurse should monitor the client's thyroid function tests and report any abnormal values to the provider, but this finding is not a contraindication to the use of propranolol.

Choice C reason: The client has a history of bronchial asthma is the correct answer. Bronchial asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks the beta-1 receptors in the heart and the beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Blocking the beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, which can worsen the symptoms of asthma and trigger an asthma attack. Propranolol is contraindicated in clients who have bronchial asthma, and the nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately.

Choice D reason: The client has a history of migraine headaches is not the correct answer. Migraine headaches are recurrent episodes of severe and throbbing pain, usually on one side of the head, that can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Propranolol is effective in preventing migraine headaches, as it reduces the frequency and severity of the attacks. Propranolol is indicated for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches, and the nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.


Similar Questions

QUESTION

A nurse is teaching a client who has angina about nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. "Place one tablet under your tongue every 5 minutes for 30 minutes to relieve chest pain."

"Place one tablet under your tongue every 5 minutes for 30 minutes to relieve chest pain." is not the correct statement. This is an incorrect and potentially dangerous instruction, as it can cause overdose and severe hypotension. The nurse should instruct the client to place one tablet under the tongue at the first sign of chest pain, and repeat every 5 minutes for up to three doses, if needed. The client should call 911 if the pain is not relieved after the first dose.

B. "Nitroglycerin decreases chest pain by dissolving blood clots that are occluding the arteries."

"Nitroglycerin decreases chest pain by dissolving blood clots that are occluding the arteries." is not the correct statement. This is a false and misleading explanation of how nitroglycerin works. Nitroglycerin does not dissolve blood clots, nor does it affect the occlusion of the arteries. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that relaxes the smooth muscle of the blood vessels, especially the veins. This reduces the preload and the oxygen demand of the heart, and relieves the chest pain caused by ischemia.

C. "You can store the bottle of tablets in your bathroom medicine cabinet."

"You can store the bottle of tablets in your bathroom medicine cabinet." is not the correct statement. This is an inappropriate and unsafe storage recommendation, as it can affect the potency and effectiveness of the medication. The nurse should instruct the client to store the bottle of tablets in a cool, dry, and dark place, away from heat, moisture, and light. The client should also keep the bottle tightly closed and replace it every 6 months, or as directed by the provider.

D. "Nitroglycerin dilates cardiac blood vessels to deliver more oxygen to the heart."

"Nitroglycerin dilates cardiac blood vessels to deliver more oxygen to the heart." is the correct statement. This is a simple and accurate description of how nitroglycerin helps to relieve anginal pain. Nitroglycerin dilates the coronary arteries, which supply blood and oxygen to the heart muscle. This improves the blood flow and oxygen delivery to the ischemic areas of the heart, and reduces the pain and discomfort.

Full Explanation

Choice A reason: "Place one tablet under your tongue every 5 minutes for 30 minutes to relieve chest pain." is not the correct statement. This is an incorrect and potentially dangerous instruction, as it can cause overdose and severe hypotension. The nurse should instruct the client to place one tablet under the tongue at the first sign of chest pain, and repeat every 5 minutes for up to three doses, if needed. The client should call 911 if the pain is not relieved after the first dose.

Choice B reason: "Nitroglycerin decreases chest pain by dissolving blood clots that are occluding the arteries." is not the correct statement. This is a false and misleading explanation of how nitroglycerin works. Nitroglycerin does not dissolve blood clots, nor does it affect the occlusion of the arteries. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that relaxes the smooth muscle of the blood vessels, especially the veins. This reduces the preload and the oxygen demand of the heart, and relieves the chest pain caused by ischemia.

Choice C reason: "You can store the bottle of tablets in your bathroom medicine cabinet." is not the correct statement. This is an inappropriate and unsafe storage recommendation, as it can affect the potency and effectiveness of the medication. The nurse should instruct the client to store the bottle of tablets in a cool, dry, and dark place, away from heat, moisture, and light. The client should also keep the bottle tightly closed and replace it every 6 months, or as directed by the provider.

Choice D reason: "Nitroglycerin dilates cardiac blood vessels to deliver more oxygen to the heart." is the correct statement. This is a simple and accurate description of how nitroglycerin helps to relieve anginal pain. Nitroglycerin dilates the coronary arteries, which supply blood and oxygen to the heart muscle. This improves the blood flow and oxygen delivery to the ischemic areas of the heart, and reduces the pain and discomfort.

QUESTION
A client who is receiving magnesium sulfate has a urine output of 20 mL/hr. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

A. Naloxone

Naloxone is not the correct medication. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioid overdose, such as respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension. Naloxone has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is a mineral and electrolyte that is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia.

B. Protamine

Protamine is not the correct medication. Protamine is a heparin antagonist that reverses the effects of heparin overdose, such as bleeding, bruising, and thrombocytopenia. Protamine has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is not an anticoagulant.

C. Calcium gluconate

Calcium gluconate is the correct medication. Calcium gluconate is a calcium salt that antagonizes the effects of magnesium sulfate overdose, such as hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and muscle weakness. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can occur when the serum magnesium level is above 7.5 mEq/L. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, deep tendon reflexes, and urine output, and report any signs of toxicity to the provider.

D. Flumazenil

Flumazenil is not the correct medication. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that reverses the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, such as drowsiness, confusion, and coma. Flumazenil has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is not a sedative.

Full Explanation

Choice A reason: Naloxone is not the correct medication. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioid overdose, such as respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension. Naloxone has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is a mineral and electrolyte that is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia.

Choice B reason: Protamine is not the correct medication. Protamine is a heparin antagonist that reverses the effects of heparin overdose, such as bleeding, bruising, and thrombocytopenia. Protamine has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is not an anticoagulant.

Choice C reason: Calcium gluconate is the correct medication. Calcium gluconate is a calcium salt that antagonizes the effects of magnesium sulfate overdose, such as hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and muscle weakness. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can occur when the serum magnesium level is above 7.5 mEq/L. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, deep tendon reflexes, and urine output, and report any signs of toxicity to the provider.

Choice D reason: Flumazenil is not the correct medication. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that reverses the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, such as drowsiness, confusion, and coma. Flumazenil has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is not a sedative.

QUESTION
A nurse is caring for a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and requires mechanical ventilation. The client receives a prescription for pancuronium. The nurse recognizes that this medication is for which of the following purposes?

A. Suppress respiratory effort

Suppressing respiratory effort is the correct purpose of pancuronium. Pancuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent that paralyzes the skeletal muscles, including the respiratory muscles. This prevents the client from breathing spontaneously and allows the mechanical ventilator to control the ventilation. Pancuronium is used to improve oxygenation and prevent barotrauma in clients with ARDS, who have severe hypoxemia and stiff lungs.

B. Decrease chest wall compliance

Decreasing chest wall compliance is not the correct purpose of pancuronium. Chest wall compliance is the measure of how easily the chest wall expands during inspiration. Decreasing chest wall compliance means increasing the resistance to lung expansion, which can worsen the ventilation and oxygenation in clients with ARDS. Pancuronium does not affect the chest wall compliance, but rather the muscle tone.

C. Decrease respiratory secretions

Decreasing respiratory secretions is not the correct purpose of pancuronium. Respiratory secretions are the mucus and fluid that are produced by the respiratory tract to moisten and protect the airways. Decreasing respiratory secretions can cause dryness and irritation of the mucous membranes, which can increase the risk of infection and inflammation. Pancuronium does not affect the respiratory secretions, but rather the nerve impulses.

D. Induce sedation

Inducing sedation is not the correct purpose of pancuronium. Sedation is a state of reduced consciousness, awareness, or responsiveness. Inducing sedation can help to reduce anxiety, pain, and agitation in clients who are mechanically ventilated. Pancuronium does not induce sedation, but rather paralysis. Pancuronium does not affect the central nervous system, but rather the peripheral nervous system. The nurse should administer a sedative agent, such as propofol or midazolam, along with pancuronium to ensure the client's comfort and safety.

Full Explanation

Choice A reason: Suppressing respiratory effort is the correct purpose of pancuronium. Pancuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent that paralyzes the skeletal muscles, including the respiratory muscles. This prevents the client from breathing spontaneously and allows the mechanical ventilator to control the ventilation. Pancuronium is used to improve oxygenation and prevent barotrauma in clients with ARDS, who have severe hypoxemia and stiff lungs.

Choice B reason: Decreasing chest wall compliance is not the correct purpose of pancuronium. Chest wall compliance is the measure of how easily the chest wall expands during inspiration. Decreasing chest wall compliance means increasing the resistance to lung expansion, which can worsen the ventilation and oxygenation in clients with ARDS. Pancuronium does not affect the chest wall compliance, but rather the muscle tone.

Choice C reason: Decreasing respiratory secretions is not the correct purpose of pancuronium. Respiratory secretions are the mucus and fluid that are produced by the respiratory tract to moisten and protect the airways. Decreasing respiratory secretions can cause dryness and irritation of the mucous membranes, which can increase the risk of infection and inflammation. Pancuronium does not affect the respiratory secretions, but rather the nerve impulses.

Choice D reason: Inducing sedation is not the correct purpose of pancuronium. Sedation is a state of reduced consciousness, awareness, or responsiveness. Inducing sedation can help to reduce anxiety, pain, and agitation in clients who are mechanically ventilated. Pancuronium does not induce sedation, but rather paralysis. Pancuronium does not affect the central nervous system, but rather the peripheral nervous system. The nurse should administer a sedative agent, such as propofol or midazolam, along with pancuronium to ensure the client's comfort and safety.