Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
A nurse working in the emergency department is admitting a client who has pertussis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Perform a Mantoux skin test on the client.
Choice A: Perform a Mantoux skin test on the client The Mantoux skin test is used to screen for tuberculosis, not pertussis. Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a bacterial infection caused by Bordetella pertussis. The Mantoux test would not be relevant or helpful in diagnosing or managing pertussis.
B. Assign the client to a negative-pressure airflow room.
Choice B: Assign the client to a negative-pressure airflow room Negative-pressure airflow rooms are typically used for airborne infections such as tuberculosis, measles, or varicella. Pertussis is primarily spread through respiratory droplets, not airborne transmission, so a negative-pressure room is not necessary.
C. Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client.
Choice C: Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client Wearing a surgical mask is appropriate when caring for a client with pertussis. Pertussis is spread through respiratory droplets, and wearing a mask helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria to healthcare workers and other patients.
D. Recommend that the client's family members receive antiviral therapy.
Choice D: Recommend that the client’s family members receive antiviral therapy Antiviral therapy is not effective against pertussis, which is a bacterial infection. Instead, antibiotics such as azithromycin or erythromycin are used to treat pertussis and prevent its spread. Therefore, recommending antiviral therapy would not be appropriate.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Ati Rn Adult Medical Surgical 2023 Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
The correct answer is: c. Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client.
Choice A: Perform a Mantoux skin test on the client
The Mantoux skin test is used to screen for tuberculosis, not pertussis. Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a bacterial infection caused by Bordetella pertussis. The Mantoux test would not be relevant or helpful in diagnosing or managing pertussis.
Choice B: Assign the client to a negative-pressure airflow room
Negative-pressure airflow rooms are typically used for airborne infections such as tuberculosis, measles, or varicella. Pertussis is primarily spread through respiratory droplets, not airborne transmission, so a negative-pressure room is not necessary.
Choice C: Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client
Wearing a surgical mask is appropriate when caring for a client with pertussis. Pertussis is spread through respiratory droplets, and wearing a mask helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria to healthcare workers and other patients.
Choice D: Recommend that the client’s family members receive antiviral therapy
Antiviral therapy is not effective against pertussis, which is a bacterial infection. Instead, antibiotics such as azithromycin or erythromycin are used to treat pertussis and prevent its spread. Therefore, recommending antiviral therapy would not be appropriate.
Similar Questions
A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and has been following a treatment plan for 3 months. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse monitor to determine long-term glycemic control?
A. Glycosylated hemoglobin level
Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1C, reflects the average blood glucose levels over the past two to three months. It is a crucial indicator of long-term glycemic control in individuals with diabetes. The American Diabetes Association recommends that the A1C level be checked at least two times a year in patients who are meeting treatment goals and have stable glycemic control. An A1C level below 7% is generally considered good control, and achieving this target can reduce microvascular complications of diabetes.
B. Postprandial blood glucose level
Postprandial blood glucose levels indicate the amount of glucose in the blood after a meal. While it's an important measure, it reflects only the immediate response to food intake and does not provide information about long-term glycemic control.
C. Fasting blood glucose level
Fasting blood glucose levels measure the amount of glucose in the blood after an overnight fast. This test is used to detect diabetes or prediabetes but is less effective than the A1C test for monitoring long-term glycemic control.
D. Oral glucose tolerance test results
The oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) measures blood glucose levels before and two hours after consuming a glucose-rich drink. This test is primarily used for diagnosing diabetes and gestational diabetes, not for long-term monitoring.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1C, reflects the average blood glucose levels over the past two to three months. It is a crucial indicator of long-term glycemic control in individuals with diabetes. The American Diabetes Association recommends that the A1C level be checked at least two times a year in patients who are meeting treatment goals and have stable glycemic control. An A1C level below 7% is generally considered good control, and achieving this target can reduce microvascular complications of diabetes.
Choice B reason: Postprandial blood glucose levels indicate the amount of glucose in the blood after a meal. While it's an important measure, it reflects only the immediate response to food intake and does not provide information about long-term glycemic control.
Choice C reason: Fasting blood glucose levels measure the amount of glucose in the blood after an overnight fast. This test is used to detect diabetes or prediabetes but is less effective than the A1C test for monitoring long-term glycemic control.
Choice D reason: The oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) measures blood glucose levels before and two hours after consuming a glucose-rich drink. This test is primarily used for diagnosing diabetes and gestational diabetes, not for long-term monitoring.
A nurse is caring for a client who has acute heart failure and received morphine intravenously 30 minutes ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication was effective?
A. Decreased urinary output
Decreased urinary output is not a direct indicator of morphine's effectiveness in acute heart failure. While morphine can lead to urinary retention, this is generally considered a side effect rather than an intended therapeutic outcome.
B. Emesis of 250 mL
Emesis, or vomiting, of 250 mL is not an indication of morphine's effectiveness. In fact, nausea and vomiting are common side effects of morphine and other opioids. If emesis occurs, it may necessitate further intervention.
C. Decreased anxiety
Decreased anxiety is a sign that the morphine is effective. Morphine has anxiolytic properties, meaning it can help alleviate anxiety, which is beneficial in acute heart failure where anxiety can exacerbate symptoms like shortness of breath.
D. Increased respiratory rate to 26/min
An increased respiratory rate to 26/min is not an indication of morphine's effectiveness and is a cause for concern. Morphine can depress the respiratory system, and an increased respiratory rate may indicate compensation for hypoxemia or the onset of adverse effects.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Decreased urinary output is not a direct indicator of morphine's effectiveness in acute heart failure. While morphine can lead to urinary retention, this is generally considered a side effect rather than an intended therapeutic outcome.
Choice B reason: Emesis, or vomiting, of 250 mL is not an indication of morphine's effectiveness. In fact, nausea and vomiting are common side effects of morphine and other opioids. If emesis occurs, it may necessitate further intervention.
Choice C reason: Decreased anxiety is a sign that the morphine is effective. Morphine has anxiolytic properties, meaning it can help alleviate anxiety, which is beneficial in acute heart failure where anxiety can exacerbate symptoms like shortness of breath.
Choice D reason: An increased respiratory rate to 26/min is not an indication of morphine's effectiveness and is a cause for concern. Morphine can depress the respiratory system, and an increased respiratory rate may indicate compensation for hypoxemia or the onset of adverse effects.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a 0.9% sodium chloride via IV infusion. The client has become dyspneic with a blood pressure of 140/100 mm Hg, a fluid intake of 960 mL, and an output of 300 mL in the past 12 hours. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Administer prescribed corticosteroids.
Administering prescribed corticosteroids is not the appropriate action for dyspnea associated with fluid overload from IV infusion. Corticosteroids are typically used to manage inflammatory conditions and are not indicated for this scenario.
B. Slow the infusion rate and contact the provider.
Slowing the infusion rate is the correct action when signs of fluid overload are present, such as dyspnea and hypertension. This helps to prevent further fluid accumulation. Contacting the provider is essential for further evaluation and management, which may include adjusting the fluid regimen or prescribing diuretics to manage the fluid overload.
C. Lower the head of the bed to semi-Fowler's position.
Lowering the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position may provide temporary relief for dyspnea but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. It is a supportive measure but should be accompanied by other interventions to manage the client's condition.
D. Change the infusion to lactated Ringer's and maintain the rate.
Changing the infusion to lactated Ringer's would not address the issue of fluid overload and could potentially exacerbate the situation if the rate is maintained. The type of IV fluid is less important than the volume and rate of administration in the case of fluid overload.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering prescribed corticosteroids is not the appropriate action for dyspnea associated with fluid overload from IV infusion. Corticosteroids are typically used to manage inflammatory conditions and are not indicated for this scenario.
Choice B reason: Slowing the infusion rate is the correct action when signs of fluid overload are present, such as dyspnea and hypertension. This helps to prevent further fluid accumulation. Contacting the provider is essential for further evaluation and management, which may include adjusting the fluid regimen or prescribing diuretics to manage the fluid overload.
Choice C reason: Lowering the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position may provide temporary relief for dyspnea but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. It is a supportive measure but should be accompanied by other interventions to manage the client's condition.
Choice D reason: Changing the infusion to lactated Ringer's would not address the issue of fluid overload and could potentially exacerbate the situation if the rate is maintained. The type of IV fluid is less important than the volume and rate of administration in the case of fluid overload.