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A woman in preterm labor at 30 weeks of gestation receives two 12 mg doses of betamethasone (Celestane) intramuscularly. The purpose of this pharmacologic treatment is to:

A. Reduce maternal and fetal tachycardia associated with terbutaline administration.

B. Suppress uterine contractions.

C. Stimulate fetal surfactant production.

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that enhances fetal lung maturity, which can help reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other complications in preterm infants. It does not reduce maternal and fetal tachycardia associated with terbutaline administration, suppress uterine contractions, or maintain maternal respiratory effort and ventilation during magnesium sulfate therapy.

D. Maintain adequate maternal respiratory effort and ventilation during magnesium sulfate therapy.

This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Final Exam OB + Community Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now


Full Explanation

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that enhances fetal lung maturity, which can help reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other complications in preterm infants. It does not reduce maternal and fetal tachycardia associated with terbutaline administration, suppress uterine contractions, or maintain maternal respiratory effort and ventilation during magnesium sulfate therapy.


Similar Questions

QUESTION

A client has completed the 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (GTT) after failing the initial screening. The nurse notes the client has failed the 2-hour and 3-hour tests. The nurse anticipates that the client will:

A. Continue routine prenatal care.

B. Be referred to an endocrinologist.

In some cases, an endocrinologist may also be involved in the management of gestational diabetes. The nurse can anticipate that the client will be diagnosed with gestational diabetes and will be referred to a dietician for dietary modifications and glucose monitoring during the remainder of her pregnancy. Regular prenatal care will also continue, and the healthcare provider may adjust the treatment plan based on the client's individual needs. However, a diagnosis of Type II diabetes would not be made solely based on a failed GTT during pregnancy, as gestational diabetes is a temporary condition that usually resolves after delivery.

C. Be diagnosed with Type II diabetes.

D. Be referred to a dietician.

Full Explanation

In some cases, an endocrinologist may also be involved in the management of gestational diabetes. The nurse can anticipate that the client will be diagnosed with gestational diabetes and will be referred to a dietician for dietary modifications and glucose monitoring during the remainder of her pregnancy. Regular prenatal care will also continue, and the healthcare provider may adjust the treatment plan based on the client's individual needs.

However, a diagnosis of Type II diabetes would not be made solely based on a failed GTT during pregnancy, as gestational diabetes is a temporary condition that usually resolves after delivery.

QUESTION

The home health nurse is assessing a 17-year-old pregnant client at 34 weeks of gestation who has been diagnosed with preeclampsia. Upon assessment, the nurse finds that the client has gained 2 pounds in the past week and her blood pressure is 144/92 mmHg. Which assessment finding would require further action by the nurse?

A. Visual disturbances

Visual disturbances would require further action by the nurse as they can be a sign of worsening preeclampsia and a potential indication for immediate medical attention. The client's recent weight gain and elevated blood pressure are also concerning findings, but visual disturbances are a more urgent symptom. Frequent voiding in large amounts and 1+ pedal edema are common in pregnancy, while one headache in the past week may or may not be significant depending on the context.

B. Frequent voiding in large amounts

C. 1+ pedal edema

D. One headache in the past week

Full Explanation

Visual disturbances would require further action by the nurse as they can be a sign of worsening preeclampsia and a potential indication for immediate medical attention. The client's recent weight gain and elevated blood pressure are also concerning findings, but visual disturbances are a more urgent symptom. Frequent voiding in large amounts and 1+ pedal edema are common in pregnancy, while one headache in the past week may or may not be significant depending on the context.

QUESTION

A nurse is administering a magnesium sulfate infusion for a client with severe preeclampsia. The nurse knows that the goal of magnesium sulfate therapy is to:

A. Lower blood pressure in the hypertensive client.

B. Shorten the duration of the labor induction.

C. Prevent a boggy uterus and lessen lochial flow after delivery.

D. Prevent and treat seizure activity.

Magnesium sulfate is a medication commonly used to prevent and treat seizure activity in pregnant women with preeclampsia and eclampsia. It works by decreasing neuromuscular irritability and depressing the central nervous system.

Full Explanation

Magnesium sulfate is a medication commonly used to prevent and treat seizure activity in pregnant women with preeclampsia and eclampsia. It works by decreasing neuromuscular irritability and depressing the central nervous system.