Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to a client with flu-like symptoms who has been placed on droplet precautions. The UAP requests a change in assignment, stating she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client.
This option is unnecessary because droplet precautions do not require a particulate filter mask. Particulate filter masks are needed for airborne precautions. Sending the UAP for fitting delays care without providing additional safety benefits for droplet precautions.
B. Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to obtain vital signs, and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care.
While a standard face mask is appropriate for droplet precautions, the part about getting fitted for a filter mask is unnecessary. It implies that a particulate filter mask is needed, which it is not for droplet precautions. This option also incorrectly suggests that vital signs can be obtained with a standard mask, but personal care requires a particulate filter mask, which is not accurate.
C. Instruct the DAP that a standard face mask is sufficient to be able to provide care for the assigned client.
Droplet precautions require the use of a standard face mask, not a particulate filter mask (such as an N95 respirator). Particulate filter masks are required for airborne precautions, which are necessary for diseases like tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox. For droplet precautions, a standard surgical mask is adequate to prevent the transmission of infections like influenza. Thus, the UAP can safely provide care to the client with flu-like symptoms by wearing a standard face mask.
D. Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks.
This option is unnecessary because a particulate filter mask is not required for droplet precautions. Changing assignments based on this criterion is not needed and could disrupt the workflow without enhancing safety. The focus should be on ensuring staff understand and use the appropriate PPE for droplet precautions.
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Full Explanation
A) This option is unnecessary because droplet precautions do not require a particulate filter mask. Particulate filter masks are needed for airborne precautions. Sending the UAP for fitting delays care without providing additional safety benefits for droplet precautions.
B) While a standard face mask is appropriate for droplet precautions, the part about getting fitted for a filter mask is unnecessary. It implies that a particulate filter mask is needed, which it is not for droplet precautions. This option also incorrectly suggests that vital signs can be obtained with a standard mask, but personal care requires a particulate filter mask, which is not accurate.
C) Droplet precautions require the use of a standard face mask, not a particulate filter mask (such as an N95 respirator). Particulate filter masks are required for airborne precautions, which are necessary for diseases like tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox. For droplet precautions, a standard surgical mask is adequate to prevent the transmission of infections like influenza. Thus, the UAP can safely provide care to the client with flu-like symptoms by wearing a standard face mask.
D) This option is unnecessary because a particulate filter mask is not required for droplet precautions. Changing assignments based on this criterion is not needed and could disrupt the workflow without enhancing safety. The focus should be on ensuring staff understand and use the appropriate PPE for droplet precautions.
Similar Questions
A client who is receiving zidovudine reports the appearance of pinpoint, red, round spots on the skin. Which result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
A. Complete blood count.
Correct- Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used in the treatment of HIV infection.One of the potential side effects of zidovudine is hematological toxicity, including anemia (low red blood cell count) and neutropenia (low white blood cell count). The appearance of pinpoint, red, round spots on the skin could be indicative of petechiae, which are small hemorrhages caused by the leakage of blood into the skin. Petechiae can occur due to low platelet counts, a component of the complete blood count (CBC). Monitoring the complete blood count is important for clients receiving zidovudine to identify any potential adverse effects on blood cell counts. Anemia and neutropenia can increase the risk of infection, bleeding, and other complications. Therefore, any changes in blood cell counts, including the presence of petechiae, should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
B. Allergy test.
Incorrect- This is used to assess allergic reactions and is not specifically related to the appearance of petechiae.
C. Skin biopsy.
Incorrect- A skin biopsy is typically performed to diagnose skin conditions or diseases and is not the primary assessment to evaluate the cause of petechiae.
D. Electromyography.
Incorrect- Electromyography is a diagnostic test used to assess muscle and nerve function and is not relevant to the appearance of petechiae associated with zidovudine use.
Full Explanation
A) Correct- Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used in the treatment of HIV infection.
One of the potential side effects of zidovudine is hematological toxicity, including anemia (low red blood cell count) and neutropenia (low white blood cell count). The appearance of pinpoint, red, round spots on the skin could be indicative of petechiae, which are small hemorrhages caused by the leakage of blood into the skin. Petechiae can occur due to low platelet counts, a
component of the complete blood count (CBC). Monitoring the complete blood count is important for clients receiving zidovudine to identify any potential adverse effects on blood cell counts. Anemia and neutropenia can increase the risk of infection, bleeding, and other complications. Therefore, any changes in blood cell counts, including the presence of petechiae, should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
B) Incorrect- This is used to assess allergic reactions and is not specifically related to the appearance of petechiae.
C) Incorrect- A skin biopsy is typically performed to diagnose skin conditions or diseases and is not the primary assessment to evaluate the cause of petechiae.
D) Incorrect- Electromyography is a diagnostic test used to assess muscle and nerve function and is not relevant to the appearance of petechiae associated with zidovudine use.
A client with diabetes insipidus (DI) has an average urinary output of 500 ml. of dilute urine every hour for the last 4 hours. Which laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. White blood cell count.
Incorrect- This test is used to assess for infection or inflammation and is not specifically related to monitoring diabetes insipidus.
B. Capillary glucose.
Incorrect- This test is used to monitor blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus.
C. Urine specific gravity.
Incorrect- While urine specific gravity can provide information about urine concentration, it is not the most important laboratory test to monitor in a client with diabetes insipidus. Serum sodium level is a more critical indicator of electrolyte balance and potential complications in DI.
D. Serum sodium.
Correct- Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to the body's inability to regulate fluid balance. In DI, the body either lacks antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys, or the kidneys are resistant to its effects. As a result, clients with DI can produce large volumes of dilute urine. The most significant concern in DI is the potential for electrolyte imbalances, particularly low serum sodium levels (hyponatremia). Excessive loss of water in the urine can lead to dehydration and concentration of the blood's sodium levels. This can result in neurological symptoms, such as confusion, seizures, and even coma. Monitoring the serum sodium level is crucial to ensure that it remains within a safe range.
Full Explanation
Choice A rationale: White blood cell count monitors for infection or inflammation. While important for general health, it does not address the massive fluid loss and electrolyte imbalances specifically caused by diabetes insipidus.
Choice B rationale: Capillary glucose monitors for diabetes mellitus. Diabetes insipidus involves antidiuretic hormone deficiency, not insulin issues; therefore, glucose levels are not the priority in managing the massive dilute polyuria seen here.
Choice C rationale: Urine specific gravity will be consistently low in diabetes insipidus. While it confirms the diagnosis of dilute urine, it is less critical than monitoring the life-threatening systemic effects of dehydration.
Choice D rationale: Serum sodium is the most important lab to monitor. Massive loss of dilute urine leads to severe hemoconcentration and hypernatremia, which can cause cerebral edema, seizures, and permanent neurological damage.
A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing intervention(s) should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
A. Use standard precautions and wear a mask.
Incorrect- Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infections.However, in the case of MRSA, contact precautions are needed due to the risk of direct transmission through physical contact.
B. Monitor the client's white blood cell count.
Correct- Monitoring the white blood cell count is important to assess for signs of infection, as an elevated count might indicate an ongoing inflammatory response.
C. Institute contact precautions for staff and visitors.
Correct- Foul-smelling drainage from an incision with suspected MRSA indicates a potential infection. Contact precautions are appropriate for MRSA, which include wearing gloves and gowns when entering the client's room to prevent the spread of the bacteria.
D. Send wound drainage for culture and sensitivity.
Correct- Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity helps identify the specific microorganisms causing the infection and guides appropriate antibiotic treatment.
E. Explain the purpose of a low-bacteria diet.
Full Explanation
A) Incorrect- Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infections.
However, in the case of MRSA, contact precautions are needed due to the risk of direct transmission through physical contact.
B) Correct- Monitoring the white blood cell count is important to assess for signs of infection, as an elevated count might indicate an ongoing inflammatory response.
C) Correct- Foul-smelling drainage from an incision with suspected MRSA indicates a potential infection. Contact precautions are appropriate for MRSA, which include wearing gloves and gowns when entering the client's room to prevent the spread of the bacteria.
D) Correct- Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity helps identify the specific microorganisms causing the infection and guides appropriate antibiotic treatment.
E) Incorrect- A low-bacteria diet is not relevant to the situation. MRSA is caused by a bacterium, not by dietary factors. The focus should be on infection control measures and appropriate medical interventions.