Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
The difference between physiological and nonphysiological jaundice is that nonphysiological jaundice
A. results from breakdown of erythrocytes
Choice A: This is incorrect because both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice result from breakdown of erythrocytes. Jaundice is caused by the accumulation of bilirubin, a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are destroyed. However, the rate and extent of hemolysis differ between the two types of jaundice.
B. usually results in kernicterus
Choice B: This is incorrect because kernicterus is a rare and serious complication of jaundice, not a usual outcome. Kernicterus occurs when bilirubin levels are very high and the pigment deposits in the brain, causing neurological damage. It can affect both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice, but it is more likely to occur in nonphysiological jaundice due to higher bilirubin levels and underlying conditions.
C. begins at the head and progresses down the body
Choice C: This is incorrect because both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice begin at the head and progress down the body. This is because bilirubin accumulates in areas with high fat content, such as the skin, eyes, and brain. The distribution of jaundice depends on the level of bilirubin in the blood, not on the type of jaundice.
D. appears in the first 24 hours of life
Choice D: This is the correct answer because nonphysiological jaundice appears in the first 24 hours of life, whereas physiological jaundice appears after the first 24 hours of life. Nonphysiological jaundice is caused by factors that increase hemolysis or impair bilirubin metabolism or excretion, such as blood group incompatibility, infection, liver disease, or enzyme deficiency. Physiological jaundice is caused by normal adaptation processes that occur after birth, such as increased red blood cell turnover, immature liver function, and delayed intestinal flora colonization.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - ATI Maternity Proctored Exam 2. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice result from breakdown of erythrocytes. Jaundice is caused by the accumulation of bilirubin, a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are destroyed. However, the rate and extent of hemolysis differ between the two types of jaundice.
Choice B: This is incorrect because kernicterus is a rare and serious complication of jaundice, not a usual outcome. Kernicterus occurs when bilirubin levels are very high and the pigment deposits in the brain, causing neurological damage. It can affect both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice, but it is more likely to occur in nonphysiological jaundice due to higher bilirubin levels and underlying conditions.
Choice C: This is incorrect because both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice begin at the head and progress down the body. This is because bilirubin accumulates in areas with high fat content, such as the skin, eyes, and brain. The distribution of jaundice depends on the level of bilirubin in the blood, not on the type of jaundice.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because nonphysiological jaundice appears in the first 24 hours of life, whereas physiological jaundice appears after the first 24 hours of life. Nonphysiological jaundice is caused by factors that increase hemolysis or impair bilirubin metabolism or excretion, such as blood group incompatibility, infection, liver disease, or enzyme deficiency. Physiological jaundice is caused by normal adaptation processes that occur after birth, such as increased red blood cell turnover, immature liver function, and delayed intestinal flora colonization.
Similar Questions
A nurse on the obstetric unit is caring for a client who experienced abruptio placentae. The nurse observes petechiae and bleeding around the IV access site. The nurse should recognize that this client is at risk for which of the following complications?
A. Preeclampsia
Choice A: This is incorrect because preeclampsia is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is not related to abruptio placentae, which is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Preeclampsia does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, or seizures.
B. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy
Choice B: This is incorrect because anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy, also known as amniotic fluid embolism, is a rare and life-threatening complication that occurs when amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation and triggers an allergic reaction. It is not related to abruptio placentae, but it may occur during labor, delivery, or shortly after birth. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause respiratory distress, hypotension, cardiac arrest, or disseminated intravascular coagulation.
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Choice C: This is the correct answer because disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition in which the blood clotting system is activated abnormally, leading to excessive clot formation and consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in bleeding from various sites, such as the IV site, gums, nose, or vagina. DIC is a common complication of abruptio placentae, as the release of thromboplastin from the placenta triggers the clotting cascade. DIC can also cause organ failure, shock, or death if not treated promptly.
D. Puerperal infection
Choice D: This is incorrect because puerperal infection, also known as postpartum infection, is a bacterial infection that affects the uterus, vagina, bladder, or wound site after childbirth. It is not related to abruptio placentae, but it may occur due to prolonged labor, cesarean delivery, retained placenta, or poor hygiene. Puerperal infection does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause fever, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, or pelvic pain.
Full Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because preeclampsia is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is not related to abruptio placentae, which is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Preeclampsia does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, or seizures.
Choice B: This is incorrect because anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy, also known as amniotic fluid embolism, is a rare and life-threatening complication that occurs when amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation and triggers an allergic reaction. It is not related to abruptio placentae, but it may occur during labor, delivery, or shortly after birth. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause respiratory distress, hypotension, cardiac arrest, or disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Choice C: This is the correct answer because disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition in which the blood clotting system is activated abnormally, leading to excessive clot formation and consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in bleeding from various sites, such as the IV site, gums, nose, or vagina. DIC is a common complication of abruptio placentae, as the release of thromboplastin from the placenta triggers the clotting cascade. DIC can also cause organ failure, shock, or death if not treated promptly.
Choice D: This is incorrect because puerperal infection, also known as postpartum infection, is a bacterial infection that affects the uterus, vagina, bladder, or wound site after childbirth. It is not related to abruptio placentae, but it may occur due to prolonged labor, cesarean delivery, retained placenta, or poor hygiene. Puerperal infection does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause fever, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, or pelvic pain.
What is low birth weight classified as?
A. Weight is less than the 10th percentile (SGA)
Choice A: This is incorrect because weight less than the 10th percentile (SGA) means that the infant is smaller than expected for the gestational age, but not necessarily low birth weight. SGA infants may have intrauterine growth restriction due to maternal, placental, or fetal factors, but they may also be constitutionally small. SGA infants are at risk for hypoglycemia, hypothermia, polycythemia, and perinatal asphyxia.
B. Weight is greater than 90th percentile
Choice B: This is incorrect because weight greater than the 90th percentile means that the infant is larger than expected for the gestational age, but not necessarily high birth weight. Infants with weight greater than the 90th percentile are called large for gestational age (LGA) or macrosomic. LGA infants may have maternal diabetes, genetic factors, or post-term pregnancy as causes, but they may also be constitutionally large. LGA infants are at risk for birth trauma, shoulder dystocia, hypoglycemia, and respiratory distress.
C. Weight is between 10th and 90th percentile
Choice C: This is incorrect because weight between the 10th and 90th percentile means that the infant is appropriate for the gestational age (AGA), but not necessarily normal birth weight. AGA infants have a weight that matches their gestational age and are considered healthy and well-nourished. However, some AGA infants may have low or high birth weight depending on their gestational age at birth.
D. Weight of 2500g or less at birth
Choice D: This is the correct answer because low birth weight (LBW) is defined as a weight of 2500g or less at birth, regardless of the gestational age. LBW infants may be preterm (born before 37 weeks of gestation), term (born between 37 and 42 weeks of gestation), or post-term (born after 42 weeks of gestation). LBW infants are at risk for infection, bleeding, jaundice, and neurodevelopmental problems.
Full Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because weight less than the 10th percentile (SGA) means that the infant is smaller than expected for the gestational age, but not necessarily low birth weight. SGA infants may have intrauterine growth restriction due to maternal, placental, or fetal factors, but they may also be constitutionally small. SGA infants are at risk for hypoglycemia, hypothermia, polycythemia, and perinatal asphyxia.
Choice B: This is incorrect because weight greater than the 90th percentile means that the infant is larger than expected for the gestational age, but not necessarily high birth weight. Infants with weight greater than the 90th percentile are called large for gestational age (LGA) or macrosomic. LGA infants may have maternal diabetes, genetic factors, or post-term pregnancy as causes, but they may also be constitutionally large. LGA infants are at risk for birth trauma, shoulder dystocia, hypoglycemia, and respiratory distress.
Choice C: This is incorrect because weight between the 10th and 90th percentile means that the infant is appropriate for the gestational age (AGA), but not necessarily normal birth weight. AGA infants have a weight that matches their gestational age and are considered healthy and well-nourished. However, some AGA infants may have low or high birth weight depending on their gestational age at birth.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because low birth weight (LBW) is defined as a weight of 2500g or less at birth, regardless of the gestational age. LBW infants may be preterm (born before 37 weeks of gestation), term (born between 37 and 42 weeks of gestation), or post-term (born after 42 weeks of gestation). LBW infants are at risk for infection, bleeding, jaundice, and neurodevelopmental problems.
What is the only known cure for preeclampsia?
A. Administration of acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) every day of the pregnancy
Choice A: This is incorrect because acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), also known as aspirin, is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a preventive measure. ASA may reduce the risk of preeclampsia in some high-risk women by inhibiting platelet aggregation and improving blood flow to the placenta. However, ASA is not recommended for all pregnant women, as it may have adverse effects on the mother and the fetus, such as bleeding, premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, or fetal growth restriction.
B. Delivery of the fetus
Choice B: This is the correct answer because delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia, as it eliminates the source of the placental factors that cause the condition. Preeclampsia is a multisystem disorder characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is caused by abnormal placentation and endothelial dysfunction that lead to vasoconstriction, inflammation, and coagulation. Delivery of the fetus and the placenta resolves these abnormalities and restores normal maternal physiology.
C. Antihypertensive medications
Choice C: This is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a cure for preeclampsia, but a symptomatic management. Antihypertensive medications may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of maternal complications, such as stroke, seizure, or organ damage. However, antihypertensive medications do not address the underlying cause of preeclampsia and do not improve fetal outcomes. Moreover, some antihypertensive medications are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects.
D. Magnesium sulfate
Choice D: This is incorrect because magnesium sulfate is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a prophylaxis for eclampsia. Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves seizures and coma. Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that prevents or treats eclamptic seizures by stabilizing neuronal membranes and reducing cerebral edema. However, magnesium sulfate does not lower blood pressure or improve renal function in preeclamptic women. It also has side effects such as nausea, flushing, headache, or respiratory depression.
Full Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), also known as aspirin, is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a preventive measure. ASA may reduce the risk of preeclampsia in some high-risk women by inhibiting platelet aggregation and improving blood flow to the placenta. However, ASA is not recommended for all pregnant women, as it may have adverse effects on the mother and the fetus, such as bleeding, premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, or fetal growth restriction.
Choice B: This is the correct answer because delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia, as it eliminates the source of the placental factors that cause the condition. Preeclampsia is a multisystem disorder characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is caused by abnormal placentation and endothelial dysfunction that lead to vasoconstriction, inflammation, and coagulation.
Delivery of the fetus and the placenta resolves these abnormalities and restores normal maternal physiology.
Choice C: This is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a cure for preeclampsia, but a symptomatic management. Antihypertensive medications may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of maternal complications, such as stroke, seizure, or organ damage. However, antihypertensive medications do not address the underlying cause of preeclampsia and do not improve fetal outcomes. Moreover, some antihypertensive medications are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects.
Choice D: This is incorrect because magnesium sulfate is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a prophylaxis for eclampsia. Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves seizures and coma. Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that prevents or treats eclamptic seizures by stabilizing neuronal membranes and reducing cerebral edema. However, magnesium sulfate does not lower blood pressure or improve renal function in preeclamptic women. It also has side effects such as nausea, flushing, headache, or respiratory depression.
