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NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
What is the first action that the nurse should take when assessing the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a woman at 30 weeks of gestation and finding a rate of 82 beats/min?
A. Recognize that the rate is within normal limits and record it.
This is not the correct action, as the rate is not within normal limits. A normal FHR at 30 weeks of gestation is between 110 and 160 beats/min. A rate of 82 beats/min is considered bradycardia (slow heart rate), which can indicate fetal distress or hypoxia (low oxygen).
B. Notify the physician.
This is not the first action, but it may be necessary after confirming the FHR. The nurse should first rule out the possibility of a maternal-fetal heart rate confusion, which can occur when the maternal heart rate is mistakenly counted as the FHR. This can happen if the Doppler or the electronic fetal monitor is placed too close to the maternal pulse or if the maternal heart rate is unusually slow².
C. Assess the woman's radial pulse.
This is the correct action, as it can help differentiate between the maternal and the fetal heart rate. The nurse should assess the woman's radial pulse at the same time as listening to the FHR and compare the rates and rhythms. If the rates are the same or very close, it is likely that the nurse is hearing the maternal heart rate instead of the FHR. If the rates are different, it is likely that the nurse is hearing the FHR and that the fetus has bradycardia.
D. Allow the woman to hear the heartbeat.
This is not the correct action, as it may cause unnecessary anxiety or distress for the woman. The nurse should not allow the woman to hear the heartbeat until the FHR is confirmed and the cause of the bradycardia is determined. The nurse should also explain the situation to the woman and provide reassurance and support.
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Ati Maternal Newborn Midterm Proctored Exam 1. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not the correct action, as the rate is not within normal limits. A normal FHR at 30 weeks of gestation is between 110 and 160 beats/min. A rate of 82 beats/min is considered bradycardia (slow heart rate), which can indicate fetal distress or hypoxia (low oxygen).
Choice B reason: This is not the first action, but it may be necessary after confirming the FHR. The nurse should first rule out the possibility of a maternal-fetal heart rate confusion, which can occur when the maternal heart rate is mistakenly counted as the FHR. This can happen if the Doppler or the electronic fetal monitor is placed too close to the maternal pulse or if the maternal heart rate is unusually slow².
Choice C reason: This is the correct action, as it can help differentiate between the maternal and the fetal heart rate. The nurse should assess the woman's radial pulse at the same time as listening to the FHR and compare the rates and rhythms. If the rates are the same or very close, it is likely that the nurse is hearing the maternal heart rate instead of the FHR. If the rates are different, it is likely that the nurse is hearing the FHR and that the fetus has bradycardia.
Choice D reason: This is not the correct action, as it may cause unnecessary anxiety or distress for the woman. The nurse should not allow the woman to hear the heartbeat until the FHR is confirmed and the cause of the bradycardia is determined. The nurse should also explain the situation to the woman and provide reassurance and support.
Similar Questions
Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy that can only be exhibited by a pregnant woman?
A. Fetal heartbeat auscultated with Doppler/fetoscope.
A fetal heartbeat auscultated with a Doppler or a fetoscope is a positive sign of pregnancy, as it confirms the presence of a living fetus in the uterus. A Doppler is an electronic device that uses sound waves to detect the fetal heart rate, while a fetoscope is a stethoscope-like instrument that amplifies the fetal heart sounds. The fetal heartbeat can be heard as early as 10 to 12 weeks of gestation with a Doppler and 18 to 20 weeks of gestation with a fetoscope.
B. Quickening
Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the pregnant woman, usually felt between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation for first-time mothers and 13 to 16 weeks of gestation for experienced mothers. However, quickening is not a positive sign of pregnancy, as it can be subjective and mistaken for other sensations, such as gas, hunger, or muscle spasms².
C. Morning sickness
Morning sickness is a common symptom of pregnancy that involves nausea and vomiting, usually in the first trimester. However, morning sickness is not a positive sign of pregnancy, as it can be caused by other factors, such as food poisoning, stress, or medication.
D. Positive pregnancy test
A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign. A pregnancy test detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the placenta, in the urine or blood of the woman. However, a positive pregnancy test does not guarantee a viable pregnancy, as it can be influenced by the timing, the quality, or the interpretation of the test. A positive pregnancy test can also occur in cases of ectopic pregnancy, molar pregnancy, or miscarriage.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: A fetal heartbeat auscultated with a Doppler or a fetoscope is a positive sign of pregnancy, as it confirms the presence of a living fetus in the uterus. A Doppler is an electronic device that uses sound waves to detect the fetal heart rate, while a fetoscope is a stethoscope-like instrument that amplifies the fetal heart sounds. The fetal heartbeat can be heard as early as 10 to 12 weeks of gestation with a Doppler and 18 to 20 weeks of gestation with a fetoscope.
Choice B reason: Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the pregnant woman, usually felt between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation for first-time mothers and 13 to 16 weeks of gestation for experienced mothers. However, quickening is not a positive sign of pregnancy, as it can be subjective and mistaken for other sensations, such as gas, hunger, or muscle spasms².
Choice C reason: Morning sickness is a common symptom of pregnancy that involves nausea and vomiting, usually in the first trimester. However, morning sickness is not a positive sign of pregnancy, as it can be caused by other factors, such as food poisoning, stress, or medication.
Choice D reason: A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign. A pregnancy test detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the placenta, in the urine or blood of the woman. However, a positive pregnancy test does not guarantee a viable pregnancy, as it can be influenced by the timing, the quality, or the interpretation of the test. A positive pregnancy test can also occur in cases of ectopic pregnancy, molar pregnancy, or miscarriage.
How is purified follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) (urofollitropin [Metrodin]) administered to an infertile woman as part of the pharmacologic treatment?
A. Intranasal spray
Intranasal spray is not a correct option, as urofollitropin is not available in this form. Intranasal spray is a method of delivering some medications through the nose, where they can be absorbed by the mucous membranes. However, urofollitropin is a protein hormone that would be degraded by the enzymes in the nasal cavity and would not reach the bloodstream effectively.
B. Intramuscular injection
Intramuscular injection is the correct option, as urofollitropin is available in this form. Intramuscular injection is a method of delivering medications into the muscle tissue, where they can be absorbed by the blood vessels. Urofollitropin is a protein hormone that needs to be injected into the body to bypass the digestive system and avoid being broken down by the stomach acids and enzymes. Urofollitropin is usually injected into the thigh or buttock muscles once a day for several days, depending on the dosage and the response².
C. Vaginal suppository
Vaginal suppository is not a correct option, as urofollitropin is not available in this form. Vaginal suppository is a method of delivering medications into the vagina, where they can be absorbed by the vaginal walls or act locally. Urofollitropin is a protein hormone that would not be absorbed well by the vaginal mucosa and would not reach the ovaries, where it is supposed to stimulate the development of the follicles (eggs).
D. Tablet
Tablet is not a correct option, as urofollitropin is not available in this form. Tablet is a method of delivering medications orally, where they can be swallowed and absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract. Urofollitropin is a protein hormone that would be destroyed by the stomach acids and enzymes and would not reach the bloodstream or the ovaries.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Intranasal spray is not a correct option, as urofollitropin is not available in this form. Intranasal spray is a method of delivering some medications through the nose, where they can be absorbed by the mucous membranes. However, urofollitropin is a protein hormone that would be degraded by the enzymes in the nasal cavity and would not reach the bloodstream effectively.
Choice B reason: Intramuscular injection is the correct option, as urofollitropin is available in this form. Intramuscular injection is a method of delivering medications into the muscle tissue, where they can be absorbed by the blood vessels. Urofollitropin is a protein hormone that needs to be injected into the body to bypass the digestive system and avoid being broken down by the stomach acids and enzymes. Urofollitropin is usually injected into the thigh or buttock muscles once a day for several days, depending on the dosage and the response².
Choice C reason: Vaginal suppository is not a correct option, as urofollitropin is not available in this form. Vaginal suppository is a method of delivering medications into the vagina, where they can be absorbed by the vaginal walls or act locally. Urofollitropin is a protein hormone that would not be absorbed well by the vaginal mucosa and would not reach the ovaries, where it is supposed to stimulate the development of the follicles (eggs).
Choice D reason: Tablet is not a correct option, as urofollitropin is not available in this form. Tablet is a method of delivering medications orally, where they can be swallowed and absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract. Urofollitropin is a protein hormone that would be destroyed by the stomach acids and enzymes and would not reach the bloodstream or the ovaries.
What is the CDC recommended medication for the treatment of chlamydia?
A. Penicillin
Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
B. Acyclovir
Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
C. Doxycycline
Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
D. Podofilox
Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
Full Explanation
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.