Nursing practice questions with comprehensive rationales
NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question
One hour after arriving on the postoperative unit, a woman who received spinal anesthesia 5 hours ago is complaining of severe abdominal incisional pain. Her vital signs are: temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 110 beats/minute, respiratory rate 30 breaths/minute and blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. The client's skin is pale, and the surgical dressing is dry and Intact. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to Implement?
A. Provide pillow for splinting.
While providing a pillow for splinting can offer comfort and support to the client, it is not the most critical intervention in this situation.
B. Assess the IV site for patency.
Assessing IV patency is a procedural prerequisite for medication administration but not a therapeutic intervention in itself. It does not directly address the pathophysiology of acute pain or the sympathetic surge evidenced by tachycardia and hypertension. Pain activates ascending pathways via A-delta and C fibers, requiring pharmacologic blockade. IV access assessment is necessary but secondary to the urgent need for analgesia to prevent complications like hypoxia, hyperventilation, or delayed recovery.
C. Place in a high Fowler position.
Placing the client in a high Fowler position may help with pain management, but it is not the priority at this moment.
D. Administer an IV analgesic.
IV analgesics act rapidly to inhibit nociceptive transmission at the spinal cord and brainstem levels. Opioids bind to mu receptors, reducing neurotransmitter release and hyperpolarizing neurons, thereby dampening pain signals. This intervention directly targets the physiologic cause of elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Normal heart rate is 60–100 bpm, respiratory rate 12–20 breaths/min, and BP <120/80 mmHg. Prompt analgesia prevents complications like hypoxia, delayed healing, and neuroendocrine stress.
E. None
None
F. None
None
This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam. Take the full exam now
Full Explanation
The correct answer is Choice D
Choice A rationale: Splinting with a pillow may reduce discomfort during movement or coughing by stabilizing the incision site, but it does not address acute postoperative pain with sympathetic overdrive. The elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure suggest a stress response mediated by catecholamines. Without analgesia, nociceptive signals continue to activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. While splinting is supportive, it lacks the pharmacologic efficacy needed to blunt nociceptive transmission at the spinal or supraspinal level.
Choice B rationale: Assessing IV patency is a procedural prerequisite for medication administration but not a therapeutic intervention in itself. It does not directly address the pathophysiology of acute pain or the sympathetic surge evidenced by tachycardia and hypertension. Pain activates ascending pathways via A-delta and C fibers, requiring pharmacologic blockade. IV access assessment is necessary but secondary to the urgent need for analgesia to prevent complications like hypoxia, hyperventilation, or delayed recovery.
Choice C rationale: High Fowler positioning may improve diaphragmatic excursion and reduce pulmonary complications, but it does not mitigate visceral or incisional pain. In fact, increased intra-abdominal pressure from upright posture may exacerbate pain at the surgical site. Pain perception involves central sensitization and peripheral nociceptor activation, which are unaffected by positioning. The client’s pale skin and elevated vitals indicate systemic distress requiring analgesic intervention, not postural adjustment. Thus, this choice lacks direct analgesic benefit.
Choice D rationale: IV analgesics act rapidly to inhibit nociceptive transmission at the spinal cord and brainstem levels. Opioids bind to mu receptors, reducing neurotransmitter release and hyperpolarizing neurons, thereby dampening pain signals. This intervention directly targets the physiologic cause of elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Normal heart rate is 60–100 bpm, respiratory rate 12–20 breaths/min, and BP <120/80 mmHg. Prompt analgesia prevents complications like hypoxia, delayed healing, and neuroendocrine stress
Similar Questions
The nurse is preparing to administer a suspension ampicillin labeled, 250 mg/5 mL, to a child with impetigo. The prescription is for 500 mg four times a day. How many mL should the child receive per day?
(Enter numeric value only.)
Full Explanation
To determine the amount of mL the child should receive per day, we need to calculate the total daily dose of ampicillin based on the prescription.
The prescription is for 500 mg of ampicillin four times a day, so the total daily dose is: 500 mg × 4 times = 2000 mg/day
The concentration of the suspension is 250 mg/5 mL, which means that there are 250 mg of ampicillin in every 5 mL.
To find out how many mL the child should receive per day, we divide the total daily dose by the concentration:
2000 mg ÷ 250 mg/5 mL = 40 mL/day
Therefore, the child should receive 40 mL of the ampicillin suspension per day.
The nurse is performing an admission assessment for a newborn who has asymmetrical buttocks. Which assessment test results should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
A. Ortolani maneuver causing a click at the hip joint.
The Ortolani maneuver is a physical examination technique used to assess for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in newborns. During the maneuver, the nurse gently abducts the infant's hips and applies gentle pressure to detect any instability or "click" at the hip joint. A positive Ortolani maneuver, where a click or clunk is felt or heard, can indicate the presence of a hip dislocation or dysplasia. Asymmetrical buttocks can be a sign of hip dysplasia in newborns, and a positive Ortolani maneuver is an important finding that suggests a potential hip joint problem. Reporting this assessment test result to the healthcare provider allows for further evaluation and appropriate management of the newborn's hip condition.
B. Plumb line test indicates fetal position curvature.
The Plumb line test, which assesses fetal position curvature, is not directly related to hip dysplasia and may not be significant in this context.
C. Babinski test that reveals fanning out of toes.
The Babinski test, which reveals fanning out of the toes, is used to assess the integrity of the infant's neurological system and is not specific to hip dysplasia.
D. Moro test precipitating a startle response.
The Moro test, also known as the startle response, is a reflex assessment used to evaluate the newborn's neurological and sensory function. While it is important to assess the overall neurological status of the newborn, the Moro test is not specific to hip dysplasia.
Full Explanation
The Ortolani maneuver is a physical examination technique used to assess for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in newborns. During the maneuver, the nurse gently abducts the infant's hips and applies gentle pressure to detect any instability or "click" at the hip joint. A positive Ortolani maneuver, where a click or clunk is felt or heard, can indicate the presence of a hip dislocation or dysplasia.
Asymmetrical buttocks can be a sign of hip dysplasia in newborns, and a positive Ortolani maneuver is an important finding that suggests a potential hip joint problem. Reporting this assessment test result to the healthcare provider allows for further evaluation and appropriate management of the newborn's hip condition.
The Plumb line test, which assesses fetal position curvature, is not directly related to hip dysplasia and may not be significant in this context.
The Babinski test, which reveals fanning out of the toes, is used to assess the integrity of the infant's neurological system and is not specific to hip dysplasia.
The Moro test, also known as the startle response, is a reflex assessment used to evaluate the newborn's neurological and sensory function. While it is important to assess the overall neurological status of the newborn, the Moro test is not specific to hip dysplasia.
When planning care for an adolescent with anorexia nervosa, which nursing problem has the highest priority?
A. Disturbed Body Image.
B. Interrupted Family Processes.
C. Imbalanced Nutrition: less than body requirements.
Imbalanced Nutrition: less than body requirements would be the nursing problem with the highest priority for an adolescent with anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by a severe restriction of food intake leading to a significantly low body weight, which can have serious physical and psychological consequences. Therefore, addressing the client's malnutrition and promoting adequate nutrition intake is crucial to prevent further complications. Disturbed Body Image, Interrupted Family Processes, and Noncompliance with treatment regimen are important nursing problems to address, but they are secondary to the client's malnutrition.
D. Noncompliance with treatment regimen.
Full Explanation
Imbalanced Nutrition: less than body requirements would be the nursing problem with the highest priority for an adolescent with anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by a severe restriction of food intake leading to a significantly low body weight, which can have serious physical and psychological consequences. Therefore, addressing the client's malnutrition and promoting adequate nutrition intake is crucial to prevent further complications. Disturbed Body Image, Interrupted Family Processes, and Noncompliance with treatment regimen are important nursing problems to address, but they are secondary to the client's malnutrition.