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NurseDive Free Nursing Practice Question

The nurse is caring for a client recovering from an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following client symptoms would require further nursing assessment?

A. Thirst

: Thirst is a common and expected symptom after an EGD, especially if the client has been fasting before the procedure. It does not typically indicate a complication and can be managed by gradually reintroducing fluids as tolerated. Therefore, thirst does not require further nursing assessment beyond routine post-procedure care.

B. Sore throat

: A sore throat is also a common symptom following an EGD. The procedure involves passing an endoscope through the throat, which can cause temporary irritation and discomfort. This symptom usually resolves on its own within a few days and does not indicate a serious complication. Therefore, a sore throat does not require further nursing assessment beyond providing comfort measures such as lozenges or warm saltwater gargles.

C. Abdominal distention

: Abdominal distention is a concerning symptom that requires further nursing assessment. It can indicate complications such as perforation, bleeding, or infection following the EGD. Perforation of the gastrointestinal tract is a rare but serious complication that can lead to peritonitis and sepsis if not promptly addressed. Therefore, any signs of abdominal distention should be reported to the provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention.

D. Drowsiness

: Drowsiness is a common side effect of the sedatives used during the EGD procedure. It is expected that the client may feel drowsy or sleepy for a few hours after the procedure as the sedative wears off. This symptom does not typically require further nursing assessment unless it persists for an unusually long time or is accompanied by other concerning symptoms such as difficulty breathing or altered mental status.

This question is an excerpt from Nurse Dive's nursing test bank - Final Med Surg Comprehensive Proctored Exam (Brooklyn University). Take the full exam now


Full Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Thirst is a common and expected symptom after an EGD, especially if the client has been fasting before the procedure. It does not typically indicate a complication and can be managed by gradually reintroducing fluids as tolerated. Therefore, thirst does not require further nursing assessment beyond routine post-procedure care.

Choice B Reason:

A sore throat is also a common symptom following an EGD. The procedure involves passing an endoscope through the throat, which can cause temporary irritation and discomfort. This symptom usually resolves on its own within a few days and does not indicate a serious complication. Therefore, a sore throat does not require further nursing assessment beyond providing comfort measures such as lozenges or warm saltwater gargles.

Choice C Reason:

Abdominal distention is a concerning symptom that requires further nursing assessment. It can indicate complications such as perforation, bleeding, or infection following the EGD. Perforation of the gastrointestinal tract is a rare but serious complication that can lead to peritonitis and sepsis if not promptly addressed. Therefore, any signs of abdominal distention should be reported to the provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention.

Choice D Reason:

Drowsiness is a common side effect of the sedatives used during the EGD procedure. It is expected that the client may feel drowsy or sleepy for a few hours after the procedure as the sedative wears off. This symptom does not typically require further nursing assessment unless it persists for an unusually long time or is accompanied by other concerning symptoms such as difficulty breathing or altered mental status.


Similar Questions

QUESTION
A client is on intravenous heparin to treat DVT in the right leg. The client’s most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What order would the nurse anticipate?

A. No change to the heparin rate

No change to the heparin rate is not appropriate in this scenario. The normal range for PTT is generally between 25 to 35 seconds. However, for a client on heparin therapy, the target PTT is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range, which would be approximately 60 to 80 seconds. Since the client’s PTT is only 25 seconds, it indicates that the blood is clotting too quickly, and the heparin dose is insufficient.

B. Decrease the heparin rate

Decreasing the heparin rate would further reduce the anticoagulant effect, which is not advisable given the current PTT of 25 seconds. Lowering the heparin rate could increase the risk of thrombus formation and worsen the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) condition.

C. Stop heparin and start warfarin

Stopping heparin and starting warfarin is not an immediate solution. Warfarin takes several days to achieve its full anticoagulant effect, and during this transition period, the client would be at risk of clot formation. Heparin provides immediate anticoagulation, which is crucial in the acute management of DVT.

D. Increase the heparin rate

Increasing the heparin rate is the correct action. The current PTT of 25 seconds is below the therapeutic range for a client on heparin therapy. Increasing the heparin rate will help achieve the desired anticoagulant effect, prolonging the PTT to the target range of 60 to 80 seconds.

Full Explanation

Choice A reason: No change to the heparin rate is not appropriate in this scenario. The normal range for PTT is generally between 25 to 35 seconds. However, for a client on heparin therapy, the target PTT is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range, which would be approximately 60 to 80 seconds. Since the client’s PTT is only 25 seconds, it indicates that the blood is clotting too quickly, and the heparin dose is insufficient.

Choice B reason: Decreasing the heparin rate would further reduce the anticoagulant effect, which is not advisable given the current PTT of 25 seconds. Lowering the heparin rate could increase the risk of thrombus formation and worsen the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) condition.

Choice C reason: Stopping heparin and starting warfarin is not an immediate solution. Warfarin takes several days to achieve its full anticoagulant effect, and during this transition period, the client would be at risk of clot formation. Heparin provides immediate anticoagulation, which is crucial in the acute management of DVT.

Choice D reason: Increasing the heparin rate is the correct action. The current PTT of 25 seconds is below the therapeutic range for a client on heparin therapy. Increasing the heparin rate will help achieve the desired anticoagulant effect, prolonging the PTT to the target range of 60 to 80 seconds.

QUESTION
A nurse is caring for a client who returns to the nursing unit from the recovery room after a sigmoid colon resection for adenocarcinoma. The client had an episode of intraoperative bleeding. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client may be developing hypovolemic shock?

A. Increase in the temperature from 37.5°C (99.5°F) to 38.6°C (101.5°F)

An increase in temperature is not a primary indicator of hypovolemic shock. While fever can occur due to infection or inflammation, it is not directly related to hypovolemic shock, which is primarily characterized by a significant loss of blood or fluids leading to decreased perfusion and oxygenation of tissues.

B. Decrease in the urinary output from 50 to 30 mL per hour

A decrease in urinary output is a critical sign of hypovolemic shock. When the body loses a significant amount of blood or fluids, the kidneys receive less blood flow, leading to reduced urine production. This is a compensatory mechanism to conserve fluids and maintain blood pressure. Normal urine output is typically around 30 to 50 mL per hour, so a drop below this range is concerning.

C. Increase in the heart rate from 88 to 110/min

An increase in heart rate is a common response to hypovolemic shock as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output and blood pressure despite the loss of blood volume. Tachycardia (increased heart rate) is one of the early signs of shock, indicating that the heart is working harder to pump blood to vital organs.

D. Decrease in the respiratory rate from 20 to 16/min

A decrease in respiratory rate is not typical of hypovolemic shock. In fact, hypovolemic shock often leads to an increased respiratory rate (tachypnea) as the body tries to compensate for decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. A decrease in respiratory rate could indicate other issues but is not a hallmark of hypovolemic shock.

Full Explanation

Choice A reason: An increase in temperature is not a primary indicator of hypovolemic shock. While fever can occur due to infection or inflammation, it is not directly related to hypovolemic shock, which is primarily characterized by a significant loss of blood or fluids leading to decreased perfusion and oxygenation of tissues.

Choice B reason: A decrease in urinary output is a critical sign of hypovolemic shock. When the body loses a significant amount of blood or fluids, the kidneys receive less blood flow, leading to reduced urine production. This is a compensatory mechanism to conserve fluids and maintain blood pressure. Normal urine output is typically around 30 to 50 mL per hour, so a drop below this range is concerning.

Choice C reason: An increase in heart rate is a common response to hypovolemic shock as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output and blood pressure despite the loss of blood volume. Tachycardia (increased heart rate) is one of the early signs of shock, indicating that the heart is working harder to pump blood to vital organs.

Choice D reason: A decrease in respiratory rate is not typical of hypovolemic shock. In fact, hypovolemic shock often leads to an increased respiratory rate (tachypnea) as the body tries to compensate for decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. A decrease in respiratory rate could indicate other issues but is not a hallmark of hypovolemic shock.

QUESTION
A nurse is caring for a client who has Cushing’s syndrome. The nurse should recognize that which of the following are manifestations of Cushing’s syndrome? (Select all that apply)

A. Buffalo hump

A buffalo hump is a characteristic sign of Cushing’s syndrome. It refers to the accumulation of fat on the back of the neck and shoulders. This symptom occurs due to the excessive production of cortisol, which leads to abnormal fat distribution in the body.

B. Moon face

Moon face is another hallmark of Cushing’s syndrome. It describes the rounding and fullness of the face, which results from fat deposits. This symptom is also caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol.

C. Hypertension

Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is commonly associated with Cushing’s syndrome. Cortisol increases blood pressure by enhancing the sensitivity of blood vessels to catecholamines and by promoting sodium and water retention.

D. Purple striations

Purple striations, or stretch marks, are often seen in individuals with Cushing’s syndrome. These marks typically appear on the abdomen, thighs, breasts, and arms. They result from the thinning of the skin and the breakdown of collagen due to elevated cortisol levels.

E. Tremors

Tremors are not typically associated with Cushing’s syndrome. While Cushing’s syndrome can cause a variety of symptoms, tremors are more commonly linked to other conditions such as hyperthyroidism or neurological disorders.

Full Explanation

Choice A reason: A buffalo hump is a characteristic sign of Cushing’s syndrome. It refers to the accumulation of fat on the back of the neck and shoulders. This symptom occurs due to the excessive production of cortisol, which leads to abnormal fat distribution in the body.

Choice B reason: Moon face is another hallmark of Cushing’s syndrome. It describes the rounding and fullness of the face, which results from fat deposits. This symptom is also caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol.

Choice C reason: Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is commonly associated with Cushing’s syndrome. Cortisol increases blood pressure by enhancing the sensitivity of blood vessels to catecholamines and by promoting sodium and water retention.

Choice D reason: Purple striations, or stretch marks, are often seen in individuals with Cushing’s syndrome. These marks typically appear on the abdomen, thighs, breasts, and arms. They result from the thinning of the skin and the breakdown of collagen due to elevated cortisol levels.

Choice E reason: Tremors are not typically associated with Cushing’s syndrome. While Cushing’s syndrome can cause a variety of symptoms, tremors are more commonly linked to other conditions such as hyperthyroidism or neurological disorders.